Thursday, January 7, 2010

Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010

Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010

Electric Circuits:

Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, star/ delta
transformation; electromagnetic induction; mutual induction; ac fundamentals;
harmonics, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis,
resonance, ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and
Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits, power
measurement .

Electrical Machines:

Single phase transformer - equivalent circuit, phasor diagram,
tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers - connections, parallel
operation; auto-transformer; DC machines - types, windings, generator/ motor
characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors;three phase induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines - performance, regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications .

Power Systems:

Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models andperformance; underground cable, string insulators; corona; distribution systems; per-unit
quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power
factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles
of over-current, differential and distance protection; protection of alternator, transformer,
transmission lines neutral earthing, solid state relays and digital protection; circuit
breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion
Utilization & Control Systems: Principles of feedback; transfer function; block
diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Nyquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag,
lead and lead-lag compensation; Heating - resistance, induction, dielectric; Welding –
spot, seam and butt; Electric traction – speed-time curves, tractive effort;

Measurements:

Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and
induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power
factor; digital voltmeters and multi-meters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Qmeters;oscilloscopes;

Analog and Digital Electronics:

Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers -biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers;Combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; A/D and D/A converters; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.Power Electronics and Drives: Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors,triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs - static characteristics and principles of operation;triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters - fully controlled and half controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basic concepts of adjustable speed dc and ac drives.

Model Question Paper

The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below. Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
Candidates have to bring their own pencils and erasers.

1.The armature of a d.c machine is made of
(A) Silicon steel (B) Wrought iron (C) Cast steel (D) Soft iron

2.The main drawbacks of d.c shunt generator is that
(A)Shunt circuit has high resistance (B) Generator voltage is small (C) Terminal voltage drops considerably with load (D) It is expensive

3.Transformers usually transfer electrical energy from primary to secondary with change in
(A) Frequency (B) Voltage (C) Power (D) Time period


TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED NOTIFICATION RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF Assistant Engineer(Elec.,/Telecom / Civil)

TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED
NOTIFICATION
RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF Assistant Engineer(Elec.,/Telecom / Civil)
Applications are invited On-line through APTRANSCO WEBSITE www.aptransco.gov.in
and http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in from 05.01.2010 to 25.01.2010 (to 23.01.2010 for
payment of fees) from eligible Engineering Graduates for filling up the following
vacancies on regular basis in APTRANSCO--Engineering Service.
The AP Transco has dispensed with the sale of applications by post/ through
Sales Counter of AP Transco. The desirous eligible Candidates may apply ON-LINE by
satisfying themselves with the terms and conditions of this recruitment.
B.L- Backlog; G.R- General recruitment;
These vacancies are subject to variation at the time of recruitment based on the
necessity.
Percentage of reservation: BC-25% + 4% Muslim reservation subject to
orders of Government from time to time.
SC- 15%, ST-6%, PH-3%
33 1/3 % reservation for women is applicable as
per rules.
Detailed notification with break-up of vacancies, Scale of Pay, Age,
Community, Educational Qualifications and other instructions along with syllabus for
the written examination may be viewed at AP Transco website
(www.aptransco.gov.in) from 05.01.2010.
NOTE:
1. The applicants are required to go through the detailed notification and decide
themselves as to their eligibility for this recruitment carefully before applying and
enter the particulars completely online.
2. Candidates are required to retain a photocopy of application form with
Reference ID for future reference.
3. Candidates have to submit application only through online mode well in
advance of the last date to avoid last day rush.
4. Hand written / typed / Photostat copies/ printed application form will not be
entertained by AP Transco by post or in person.
PTO
Asst. Engineer/
Electrical
Asst. Engineer/
Telecom
Asst. Engineer/
Civil
Name of the
Zone
B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total
Visakapatnam 10 37 47 1 - 1 - 2 2
Vijayawada 7 39 46 3 - 3 - 2 2
Kadapa 12 35 47 2 - 2 - 2 2
Hyderabad 12 35 47 2 1 3 1 2 3
Warangal 8 38 46 2 - 2 - 2 2
Total 49 184 233 10 1 11 1 10 11
: 2:
FEE:
Each applicant must pay Rs. 150/- (Rupees One hundred and Fifty Only) towards
Application Processing Fee.
i) Applicants under General category must also pay RS.350/- (Three
Hundred and Fifty ONLY) towards Examination Fee. (Applicants
belonging to SC/ST/BC Communities and PH need not pay this fee).
ii) Candidates belonging to States other than Andhra Pradesh will be
considered in general category only and are required to pay the aboveprescribed
fee.
Mode of Payment of Fee: The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee as per the
notification in any one of the A.P. Online centers and obtain Fee paid receipt with
Journal Number( 12 digit) in the first instance. Applicants can also pay the fee
through AP Online portal.
Submission of Application: After payment of Fee, the Candidate has to logon to the
website http:// www.aptransco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or
directly visit http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in to view the detailed notification, User
Guide and Application Form. The applicants have to invariably fill all the
relevant fields in the Application. Immediately on submission of application
the Applicant will get an acknowledgement in the form of a downloadable pdf
document.
Starting date for Payment of Fee and Application submission is 05.01.2010.
Last date for payment of Fee at AP Online is 23.01.2010
Last date for submission of Application is 25.01.2010 up to 7 P.M
Place: Hyderabad CHIEF GENERAL MANAGER
Date : (HRD &Trg.)
:3:
INSTRUCTIONS
I. Instructions for Scanning of Photograph with Signature
Photo width= 3.5cm
Photo Height= 4.5cm
Signature Space = 1.5 cm
1. Paste the Photo on any white paper as per the above required dimensions. Sign in the
Signature Space provided. Ensure that the signature is within the box.
2. Scan the above required size containing photograph and signature. Please do not scan
the complete page.
3. The entire image (of size 3.5 cm by 6.0 cm) consisting of the photo along with the
signature is required to be scanned and stored in *.jpg format on local machine.
4. Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more that 50KB.
5. If the size of the file is more than 50 KB, then adjust the settings of the scanner such
as the dpi resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning.
6. The candidate has to sign in full in the box provided. Since the signature is proof of
identity, it must be genuine and in full; initials are not sufficient. Signature in CAPITAL
LETTERS is not permitted.
7. The signature must be signed only by the candidate and not by any other person.
8. The signature will be used to put on the Hall Ticket and wherever necessary. If the
candidate’s signature on the answer script, at the time of the examination, does not
match the signature on the Hall Ticket, the candidate will be disqualified.
Sample Photo and Signature
e.g. The Technical Specifications of the sample scanned image shown above are:
• Size of the file < 50 KB
• Dpi setting = 200 dpi
• True Colour
The candidate has to upload his/her Photo with Signature in the prescribed format by
clicking on the browse button at the time of submission of application form.
II. ELIGIBILITY:
1.AGE: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.07.09.
Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years in respect of
SC/ST/BC candidates and up to 10 years in respect of
P.H candidates.
2.EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS:
a) Assistant Engineers/Electrical: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E,
Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent qualification in the
similar discipline from any recognized University in India.
b) Assistant Engineers/Telecom: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, in
Telecommunications/Electronics/ Electronics and Communication or
equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any recognized
University in India.
c) Assistant Engineers/Civil: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, Civil
Engineering or equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any
recognized University in India.
III.SELECTION PROCEDURE:
i) The selection of candidates for appointment will be made 100% on Written
examination.
ii) Only those candidates who qualify in the written examination by being ranked
high, community wise will be called for verification of Original Certificates in 1:2
ratio.
(iii) The minimum qualifying marks in the written test for the above selection
process shall be as follows:
OC - 40%
BC - 35%
SC/ST - 30%
Or as per Rules
Note: Mere securing minimum qualifying marks doesn’t vest, any right to a
candidate for being called for verification of original certificates.
IV. Details of Written Examination:
i) Syllabus: The syllabus for the written examination is placed at Annexure I.
ii) Hall Tickets: The hall tickets will be placed on the website seven days prior
to the date of examination. The candidate has to down load the Hall ticket from the
website only. Hall tickets will not be sent to the candidates by post.
iii) Date of examination:
(a) The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/ Elec., will
be held on 07.02.2010 at 10 AM to 12 Noon.
(b) The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/Telecom
and Civil will be held on 07.02.2010 at 2 PM to 4 PM.
iv) Examination Centers: The written examination for recruitment of
Assistant Engineer/ Elec., /Telecom/Civil will be held at different centers
located only in Hyderabad & Secunderabad.
v). Instructions to Candidates at the time of Written Examination:
1. The test is of two ours duration. The date and time are indicated on the Hall
ticket. Candidates should reach the test center in time. Candidates will be
allowed in to the examination hall half an hour before the scheduled starting
time. Candidates will not be allowed into the examination hall after the test has
started and will not be permitted to leave examination hall before the closure of
test time under any circumstances.
2. The test will be of objective type with multiple-choice questions with only one
answer being correct among the four alternatives suggested.
3. A separate O M R (Optical mark Reader) answer sheet will be provided to the
candidates. The candidate has to indicate his response to each question by
darkening the appropriate bubble with a HB Pencil.
4. The candidate has to bring a good quality HB Pencil, eraser, sharpener and
blue/black pen or ball point pen to the examination hall.
5. The candidate has to follow meticulously all the instructions given on the
question paper booklet and OMR Answer Sheet, else his answer sheet may not be
valued.
6. Usage of Calculators/mathematical tables is not permitted. Candidates should
not bring cell phones or any other electronic gadgets to the examination hall.
V. TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICE:
1. Scale of Pay: Rs.13905-575-15055-670-18405-770-21485.
2. Training cum Probation: The candidates appointed to the post shall be placed
on Training-cum-Probation for a period of 2 years. During the period of Trainingcum-
Probation he/she will be paid the minimum of the pay scale along with
admissible allowances.
3. Place of posting: The candidates appointed shall be required to work at the
substations of APTRANSCO for a minimum period of 3 years.
4. The candidate will be governed by the rules and regulations applicable or as
framed by the AP Transco and as amended from time to time. The Tripartite
Agreement entered into between the APSEB, govt of A.P and the Employees
Associations is not applicable to these candidates and they shall at no stage be
entitles to claim any right what so ever arising out of the said Tripartite Agreement.
VI. EXECUTION OF BOND :
(i) The candidates appointed will be required to execute a Bond (in Non-
Judicial stamp paper worth Rs.110/- (Rupees One hundred and ten
only) at the time of joining, to serve APTRANSCO for a MINIMUM
period of 5 Years after completion of Training-cum-Probation period
(2 years).
(ii) During the above bond period the candidates will deposit his/her
original certificates such as Degree, date of birth and community, etc
with APTRANSCO. The Certificates so deposited with APTRANSCO shall
not be returned during the above bond period.
(iii) The Candidate who leaves the APTRANSCO service during the
Training-cum-Probation period shall refund the emoluments received
by him/her plus Rs.30, 000/- (Rupees Thirty thousand only) by way of
liquidated damages.
(iv) The Candidate who leaves the APTRANSCO service without serving a
minimum period of 5 years after completion of Training-cum-Probation
period shall have to pay a sum of Rs.60, 000/-(Rupees Sixty Thousand
Only) by way of liquidated damages to the Corporation.
VII. HOW TO APPLY:
HOW TO UPLOAD THE APPLICATION FORM:
i) The Applicants have to read the User Guide for Online Submission of Applications
and then proceed further.
I Step:- Payment of Fee: The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee as per
the notification in any one of the A.P. Online centers and obtain Fee paid receipt
with Journal Number in the first instance. Applicants can also pay the fee through
APOnline portal.
II Step:- Submission of Application: After payment of Fee, the Candidate has to
logon to the website http:// www.aptransco.gov.in and click on APPLY
ONLINE link or directly visit http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in to view the detailed
notification, User Guide and Application Form. The applicants have to provide
payment details (journal number and date) and upload the scanned copy of
passport size photograph with signature (see instructions for scanning and
uploading photograph with signature) and then invariably fill all the relevant
fields in the Application. Immediately on submission of application, applicant
will get an acknowledgement in the form of a downloadable pdf document.
ii) Hand written/ Typed/ Photostat copies/ Outside printed Application Form
will not be accepted and liable for rejection.
iii) Only applicants willing to serve anywhere in the Andhra Pradesh should apply.
iv) For any problems related to Online submission and downloading of Hall-Tickets
please contact Help Desk No. 9246290436 (Call Time: 9.30 A.M to 1.00 P.M &
1.30 P.M to 5.30 P.M) or log on to http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in click on to complaint
box.
VIII. FEE
i) Each applicant must pay Rs. 150/- (Rupees One hundred
and Fifty Only) towards Application Processing Fee.
ii) Applicants under General category must also pay RS.350/-
(Three Hundred and Fifty ONLY) towards Examination Fee.
(Applicants belonging to SC/ST/BC Communities and PH need not pay
this fee).
NOTE:
1. AP Transco is not responsible, for any discrepancy in submitting through Online.
The applicants are therefore, advised to strictly follow the instructions and User
guide in their own interest.
2. Applicant must compulsorily fill-up all relevant fields of application and submit
application through website only.
3. Incomplete/incorrect application form will be summarily rejected. AP Transco
under any circumstances will not entertain the information if any furnished by the
candidate subsequently. Applicants should be careful in filling-up of the application
form at the time of submission. If any lapse is detected during the scrutiny, the
candidature will be rejected even though he/she comes through the final stage of
recruitment process or even at a later stage.
4. Before payment of fee, submission of application form, the candidates should
carefully ensure his/her eligibility for this notification. No relevant column of the
application form should be left blank; otherwise application form will not be
accepted.
5. The applications received online in the prescribed proforma available in the
website and within the time shall only be considered and the AP Transco will not be
held responsible for any kind of discrepancy.
6. Applicants must compulsorily upload his/her own scanned photo with signature in
jpg format only.
General
• Candidates belonging to States other than Andhra Pradesh will be
considered in general category only and are required to pay the aboveprescribed
fee.
• The candidate should not furnish any false tampered, fabricated
information or suppress any material information while filling up the
application form.
• Candidates called for verification of certificates will be required to furnish
documentary proof in evidence of the following as and when called for.
a) Age: Proof of age as recorded in SSC certificate or
equivalent.
b) Qualification of BE/B. Tech/AMIE or equivalent from any
recognized University in India.
c) Permanent Community certificate issued by MRO in original or
Original caste certificate issued by Revenue Officer not less than
the rank of MRO issued on or after 01-07-2008 in respect of
SC/ST & BC candidates clearly indicating the Sub-Caste and
group.
d) Physically Handicapped certificate indicating the minimum 40%
of disability issued by District Medical Board.
e) Study Certificate / Residential Certificate issued by the Officer of
the Revenue Department not below the rank of Tahsildar in
independent charge of Mandal as the case may be .
• Candidates will be required to appear for written test as and when
conducted at their own cost.
• Admission for written test or calling the qualified candidates in the
written test to furnish documentary proof does not confer any right for
appointment.
• The degrees awarded by the Universities/institutions that are
recognized by the U.G.C, D.E.C (Under IGNOU) and AICTE as the case
shall only be considered.
• The decision of the Selection Committee/AP TRANSCO is final in
selection and allotment of candidates.
IX. BREAK UP OF VACANCIES
Consequent to implementation of the spirit of A. P. Public Employment
(Organization of Local Cadres & Regulation of Direct Recruitment) order, 1975 which
popularly known as “The Presidential Order” in APTRANSCO, the break-up of
vacancies, Zone-wise, are as follows:
COMMUNITY WISE BREAK-UP OF VACANCIES:
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
ZONE
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - 2 - 1 - 1 - - - - - - 2 1 - 1 1(H.H) 1(V.H) 10
VSP
G.R 11 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 37
B.L - 2 - - - - - - - - - - 2 1 1 - - 1(V.H) 7
VJA G.R 11 6 2 - 3 1 - - 3 1 2 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 39
B.L - 5 1 - - 1 - - - - - - 2 2 - - - 1(V.H) 12
KDP
G.R 10 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 3 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 35
B.L - 4 - - - 1 - - 2 1 - - 1 1 - - 1(H.H) 1(V.H) 12
HYD
G.R 10 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 3 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 35
B.L - 3 1 - - - - - 1 1 1 - - - - - - 1(V.H) 8
WGL
G.R 11 7 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth. H)
- 38
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (TELECOM)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
Zones
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1(V.H) 1
VSP
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - 1 - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 3
VJA
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - - - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1(V.H) 2
KDP
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 2
HYD
G.R 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 2
WGL
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Asst. Engineer/
Electrical
Asst. Engineer/
Telecom
Asst. Engineer/
Civil
Name of the
Zone
B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total
Visakapatnam 10 37 47 1 - 1 - 2 2
Vijayawada 7 39 46 3 - 3 - 2 2
Kadapa 12 35 47 2 - 2 - 2 2
Hyderabad 12 35 47 2 1 3 1 2 3
Warangal 8 38 46 2 - 2 - 2 2
Total 49 184 233 10 1 11 1 10 11
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (CIVIL)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
Zone
s
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
VSP
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
VJA
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
KDP
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1
(VH)
1
HYD
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
WGL
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - Backlog; G.R - General recruitment; G – General; W - Women
X ZONAL/ LOCAL:
The select list will be drawn into two parts. The first part will comprise 40% of the
posts consisting of combined merit list of local as well as non-locals and the
remaining second part will comprise the balance 60% of the posts consisting of locals
only and the posts will be filled only following the rule of reservation.
a) The candidates will be selected and allotted to Zones/Sub Stations as per
their Rank in the merit list and as per zonal preferences for allotment of non-local
candidates against vacancies available. Selection shall be made on State Wide merit,
in respect of non-local candidates and allotment of Zones shall be made as per the
preference given by candidates against the actual vacancies.
b) While the Corporation calls for preference of candidates in respect of zones in
the application form, it is hereby clarified that the said preferences are only
indicative for being considered to the extent possible but not binding. Therefore, the
APTRANSCO has the power to assign a successful candidate to any of the notified
posts in the Zone in respect of non-local candidates, for which he/she is considered
to be qualified and eligible, subject to fulfilling the selection criteria. Mere claim of
preference for any zone for allotment against vacancy does not confer a right to
selection for that Zone in particular or any Zone in general.
RESERVATION TO LOCAL CANDIDATES:
Reservation to the local candidates is applicable as provided in the Rules and as
Amended from time to time in force on the date of notification. The candidates
claiming reservation as Local candidates should obtain the required Study certificates
(from class IV to X) or Residence Certificate in the proforma only for those
candidates who have not studied in any Educational Institutions as the case may be .
The relevant certificates may be got ready with authorized signature and kept with
the candidates as and when required.
DEFINITION OF LOCAL CANDIDATE:
(i) ‘’LOCAL CANDIDATE” means a candidate for direct recruitment to any post in
relation to that Local areas where he/she has studied in Educational
Institution(s) for not less than four consecutive academic years prior to and
including the year in which he/she appeared for S.S.C. or its equivalent
examination. If however, he/she has not studied in any Educational
Institution during the above four years period, it is enough if he/she has
resided in that area which is claimed as his /her Local area during the above
said period.
(ii) In case the candidate does not fall within the scope of the (i) above it will be
considered if he/she has studied for a period of not less than seven years
prior to and inclusive of the year in which he/she has studied for the
maximum period out of the said period of seven years AND where the period
of his/her study in two or more Local areas are equal such Local area where
he/she has studied last (in such Local area) will be taken for determining the
Local candidature. Similarly, if he/she has not studied during the above said
period in any Educational Institution(s) the place of residence during the
above period will be taken into consideration and Local candidature determine
with reference to the maximum period of residence or in the case of equal
period where he/she has resided last.
(iii) If the claim of Local candidature is based on study, the candidate is required
to produce a certificate from the Educational Institution(s) where he/she has
studied during the said 4/7 year period .If, however, it is based on residence,
a certificate should be obtained from an officer of the Revenue Department
not below the rank of a Tahsildhar in independent charge of a Mandal
(iv) If, however, a candidate has resided in more than one Mandal during the
relevant 4/7 years period but with in the same District or Zone as the case
may, be separate certificates from the Tahsildhars exercising jurisdiction have
to be obtained in respect of different areas.
NOTE:
A. Single certificate, whether of study or Residence would suffice for
enabling the candidate to apply as a “LOCAL CANDIDATE “.
B. Resident certificate will not be accepted, if a candidate has studied
in any Educational Institution up to S.S.C or equivalent
examination, such candidates have to produce study certificates
invariably.
C. Each of the following Zones comprises the Districts mentioned
against each Zone
Zones Districts
Visakhapatanam
(VSP)
Srikakukam, Vizianagaram
Visakapatnam. East & West Godavari
Vijayawada
(VJA)
Krishna, Guntur, Prakasham
& Nellore
Kadapa
(KDP)
Chitoor, Kadapa, Anantapur and
Kurnool.
Hyderabad
(HYD)
Hyderabad, Rangareddy,
Mahboobnagar, Medak and Nalgonda,
Warangal
(WGL)
Adilabad, Karimnagar, Warangal
Khammam and Nizamabad
Presidential Order is not applicable to Corporate Head Office.
ANNEXURE - I
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010
Electric Circuits: Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, star/ delta
transformation; electromagnetic induction; mutual induction; ac fundamentals;
harmonics, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis,
resonance, ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and
Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits, power
measurement .
Electrical Machines: Single phase transformer - equivalent circuit, phasor diagram,
tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers - connections, parallel
operation; auto-transformer; DC machines - types, windings, generator/ motor
characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors;
three phase induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and
speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines - performance,
regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and
applications .
Power Systems: Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models and
performance; underground cable, string insulators; corona; distribution systems; per-unit
quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power
factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles
of over-current, differential and distance protection; protection of alternator, transformer,
transmission lines neutral earthing, solid state relays and digital protection; circuit
breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion
Utilization & Control Systems: Principles of feedback; transfer function; block
diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Nyquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag,
lead and lead-lag compensation; Heating - resistance, induction, dielectric; Welding –
spot, seam and butt; Electric traction – speed-time curves, tractive effort;
Measurements: Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and
induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power
factor; digital voltmeters and multi-meters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Qmeters;
oscilloscopes;
Analog and Digital Electronics: Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers -
biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers;
Combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; A/D and D/A
converters; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.
Power Electronics and Drives: Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors,
triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs - static characteristics and principles of operation;
triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters - fully controlled and half
controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basic concepts of adjustable speed dc
and ac drives.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below. Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
Candidates have to bring their own pencils and erasers.
1.The armature of a d.c machine is made of
(A) Silicon steel (B) Wrought iron (C) Cast steel (D) Soft
iron
A
B
C D
2.The main drawbacks of d.c shunt generator is that
(A)Shunt circuit has high resistance (B) Generator voltage is
small (C) Terminal voltage drops considerably with load
(D) It is expensive
A B C
D
3.Transformers usually transfer electrical energy from primary
to secondary with change in
(A) Frequency (B) Voltage (C) Power (D) Time period
A B
C D
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Civil) 2010
1. Strength of Materials: Simple stresses and strains. Hooke’s law. Stress-strain curve
for mild steel, elastic constants, compound bars, temperature stresses, strain energy,
resilience, impact loading, SFD and BMD for simple cantilever and overhanging beams.
Centre of gravity and moment of inertia, bending and shear stress distributions. Theory
of pure torsion, helical spring, thin and thick cylinders, analysis of trusses by method of
joints and method of sections, combined direct and bending stresses, column and struts,
deflection of beams-double integration, moment area and conjugate beam methods.
2. Reinforced Concrete: Basic reinforcing materials, tests on cement and aggregates.
Structural concrete and its grades, workability tests and concrete mix design. Singly
and doubly reinforced beams, working stress design of rectangular and flanged beams
shear bond, development length and torsion in beams, one-way and two-way slabs,
axially and eccentrically loaded columns, isolated and combined footings. Basic
concepts of limit state design and its applications to the design of beams, slabs and
columns.
3.Steel Structures: Grades of steels, design of simple and compound beams, riveted and
welded joints, riveted and welded connections’-eccentric framed and seated, simple and
compound columns, slab and gusseted bases, grillage foundations, roof trusses, plastic
analysis – plastic bending of beams, shape factor, plastic analysis theorems, and
analysis of fixed, propped cantilever beams by static and kinematic methods.
4.Fluid Mechanics & Machinery : Fluid properties, pressure measurements, manometers,
forces on plane and curved surfaces, center of pressure, principle of buoyancy, stability
of floating and submerged bodies, metacentre, Kinematics of fluid flow, equation of
continuity. Euler’s and Bernoulli’s equations, Impulse-momentum, flow measuring
device s – orifices and mouth pieces, notches and weirs, flow through pipes, open
channel flow, impact of jets – stationery and moving vanes (flat and curved), radial
vanes, hydraulic turbines, pumps and machinery.
5.Soil Mechanics: Physical properties of soils, classification and identification,
permeability, capillarity, seepage, compaction, shear strength, Earth pressure, slope
stability.
Foundation Engineering : Stress distribution in soils, bearing capacity, settlement
analysis, pile foundation, Coffer dams, Caissons, Dewatering, Bracing for
excavations, site investigations, New mark charts, Machine foundation.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below.
Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall. Candidates have to bring
their own pencils and erasers.
1. The maximum value of Poisson’s ratio for any material is
( a) 1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.1
A
O
B

C
O
D
O
2. The modular ratio for M 20 grade concrete is
(a) 13.33 (b) 18.67 (c) 20 (d) 10
A
O
B

C
O
D
O
3.The maximum permissible deflection for a simply supported
steel beam of span 6.5 m is
(a) 5 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 30 mm
A
O
B
O
C

D
O
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Telecom) 2010
Network Analysis : Kirchoff’s Laws, RC, RL & RLC Circuits, Initial conditions,
Energy, Power, Instantaneous, max, average, RMS values of alternating currents, Phaser
representation, transient and steady state analysis, Total response. Network analysis
using Laplace Transforms, properties of Laplace transforms.
Fourier Series: Continuous and discrete Fourier Transforms, z-transforms. Applications
to signal Analysis.
Convolution. Network Theorems and Applications. Two Port Parameters, Series, Parallel
and Cascade connections of two port networks, Z, Y, ABCD Parameters, Network
Functions, Poles and Zeros. Driving point and Transfer Functions, Image Parameters,
Conventional LP, HP, BP, Band Stop Filters. Composite Filters, T,  & Lattice
Networks, Attenuators and Equalizers.
Electronic Devices & Circuits: PN Junction, PNP, NPN Transistors. Biasing, Tunnel
Diode, FET, UJT,SCR Characteristics, Various CB,CE,CC transistor Amplifiers –
Analysis & Performance. RC coupled and push pull amplifiers, compensation techniques,
Feedback, Negative feedback, oscillator Circuits, Phase Shift Oscillator.
Digital Circuits: Wave Shaping, multivibrators, Sweep Generators, Counters, logic
Gates and Circuits, Number Systems, Codes, Error Detection and Correction. Sequential
Circuits, Integrated Circuits OP Amps-Applications, IC Comparator Circuits, A/D, D/A
Converters.
Linear Control System: Open loop, Closed loop system, Signal Flow Graphs, Stability,
Routh – Hurwitz and Nyquist Criterion, Bode plots, Gain-phase Margin, Lead-Lag
compensation Techniques.
Transmission Lines & Antennas: Transmission line equation, Primary and Secondary
Parameters, Propagation constants, Open and Short Circuited Lines, Standing Waves,
Reflection Coefficient, VSWR, Line as Circuit element, Impedance Matching.
Maxwell’s equations and Field Theory: Various Laws & Theorems in
Electromagnetism, Plane Waves, Boundary Conditions, Concept of Radiation, Half wave
Dipole, Antenna Arrays, Communication Antennas – performance Characteristics.
Wave guides and Components: Reciprocal & non Reciprocal Wave guide components,
Couplers, Tees, Microwave Sources, Microwave Communication, Link Design.
Basics of Micro Processors & Micro Controllers: Architecture and Assemblers,
memory Devices.
Communication systems: Modulation, All types of Modulation techniques, SNR,
Analog & Digital Communication techniques, multiplexes, Demodulators, Radio
Receivers & Transmitters – Characteristics & Basics of Fibre Optics Communication and
Satellite Communication Systems.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below.
Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall. Candidates have to bring
their own pencils and erasers.
1.For reciprocal network, ABCD parameters are related as
(A ) A = D (B) B = C (C) AD – BC = 1 (D) AD + BC
= 1
A
O
B
O
C

D
O
2. For a short circuited transmission line, reflection coefficient is
equal to
(A) zero (B) infinity (C) -1 (D) +1
A
O
B
O
C

O

Wednesday, December 9, 2009

BSNL JTO

1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None

2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above

3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

4. In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole

concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)

5. When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms

6. A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies

7. The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming

8. A ‘trimmer’ capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) ‘Tunning up’ a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio

9. In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation

10. FET’s have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors

11. The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

12. AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode

13. When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current

14. The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25

15. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate

16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero

17. In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected

18. The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform

19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies

20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –

22. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –

23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the

Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W

24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W

25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –

26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –

28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket

29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now

doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
BSNL Recruitment / Placement Paper previous years for GE JTO Exam
30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector

at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction

31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr

32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none

34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.

36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy

38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero

39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth

40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none

41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code

42. The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12

43. The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200

44. The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points ‘r’
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2

45. In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr

46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is

47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other

components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.

48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group

49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two

steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2

50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-

51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.

52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above

53 The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA

54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor

55. Crossover distortion occurs in — amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB

56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to

—dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2

57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000

58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The

upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz

59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n

60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999

61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-

62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101

63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns

64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100

65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar

66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.

67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode

68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800

69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Question paper previous years exam last. 2007 2008
70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –
a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.

71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown

in figure
72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at – 2. The gain

margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB

74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48

75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis

76. Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and

the satellite.

77 The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero

78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power

80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker

81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse

82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b

83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite

84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave

85. Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift

86. In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode

87. PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter

88. A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect

89. LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased

90. Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading

91. 8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None

92. The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7

93. In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None

94. A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.

95. RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above

96. A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit

97. On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do

98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable

99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
BSNL Recruitment Question Paper for GE JTO free. BSNL Placement Examination Paper previous years 2006 2007 2008 2009 sample

paper. solutions / answer keys coming soon!
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic

101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None

102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary ‘may’ indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request

103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above

104. The manager is usually strict but in Madhav’s case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient

105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession

106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling

107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these

108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu

109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these

110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma

111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha

112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open

113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan

114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE

115. Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

116. The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao

117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members

118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra

119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha

120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
d) 22 yards

BSNL JTO

1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency series circuit is-
a.) Inductive
b.) Capacitive
c. )Resistive
d.)None
2. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (Ohm –1 m-1) -
a.) 107
b. )105
c. )10-4
d. )10-6
3. The output of a piezoelectric crystal has-
a. )Low amplitude and low impedance
b. )High amplitude and high impedance
c. )Low amplitude and high impedance
d.)High amplitude and low impedance
4. The time constant associated with the capacitor charging in the circuit shown in the given figure is –
a. )6ms
b. )10ms
c. )15ms
d.) 25ms
5. The Q factor of an inductor would be higher if it is made of –
a.) Thinner wire
b.) Longer wire
c.) Shorter wire
d.) Thicker wire
6. A cavity resonator can be represented by –
a.) An LC circuit
b.) An LCR circuit
c.) A lossy inductor
d.) A lossy capacitor
7. Air gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents –
a.) Core saturation
b). Hysterisis loss
c.) Flux leakage
d.) Transformer action
8. Between the plates of an air capacitor if a glass slab is slipped without moving the plate then -
a.) Its capacitance is decreased
b.) Its capacitance is increased
c.) Its capacitance is hardly affected
d. )Capacitor is discharged
9. For current to flow, a circuit must be –
a.) Isolated
b). Insulated
c.) Complete
d.) Protected
10. Human ear can detect sound intensities of the order of –
a.) 10-20 w/m2
b). 10-13 w/m2
c.) 10-6 w/m2
d.) 10-3 w/m2
11. A FET operates on –
a). Majority carriers only
b). Minority carriers only
c). Positively charged ions only
d.) None
12. An SCR can conduct for a full half cycle or any part of it –
a. )and continue conduction for other half cycle
b.) but blocks the conduction for other half cycle
c.) nothing can be said
d.) none
13. In CRT aquadag carries -
a. )aqueous solution of graphite
b. )sweep voltage
c. )secondary emission electrons
d.) none of the above

14. From the following circuit, in order to obtain a 12-v stabilized supply the input to the terminals A and B
should be -
a.)less than 12v with terminal A positive with respect to terminal B
b. )greater than 12v with B positive with respect to A
c. )less than 12v with A negative with respect to B
d. )greater than 12v with A positive with respect to B
15. When the value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 Na then the value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180c would be –
a. )8mA
b. )160 hA
c. )1mA
d. )7.84mA
16. MOSFET can operate in –
a. )Depletion mode
b. )Enhancement mode
c. )Depletion-only mode
d. )Both a & b
17. For a circuit design the very factor of an SCR, which is to be taken into account is –
a.)
d.) None

18. The functions of an oxide layer in an IC device is to –
a.) mask against diffusion or ion implant
b.) insulate the surface electrically
c.) produce a chemically stable protective layer
d.) all the above
19. One of the following bipolar transistors which has the highest current gain bandwidth product for similar geometry is –
a.) NPN germanium transistor
b.) NPN silicon transistor
c.) PNP germanium transistor
d. )PNP silicon transistor.
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20. With the increasing temperature, the electrical conductivity would –
a.) Increase in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
b.) Increase in metals but decrease in intrinsic semiconductors.
c. )Decrease in metals but increase in intrinsic semiconductors.
d. )Decrease in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
21. For the following circuit, the current X is 3A then the power delivered by the dependent current source D is –
a.) 50 watts
b) 50 watts
c. )1500 watts
d. )15000 watts
22. The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will be –
a.) 0.2A
b.) 0.4A
c.) 0.6A
d.) 0.8A

23. In the network shown in the given fig. the capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0 before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In the steady state-
a.)C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages
b.) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs
c. )C1 and C2 are discharged fully
d. ) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0
24. The equivalent circuit of a wire-wound resistor can be represented as –

25. For the fig. shown the fundamental cutset for the branch 12 is –
a. )2, 1, 5
b. )2, 6, 7, 8
c. )2, 1, 3, 4,5
d. )2, 3, 4

26. Ideally, attenuator pads should not change –
a. )voltage level
b.) impedance level
c.) power level
d.) voltage, power or impedance level
27. When the two networks are cascaded through an ideal Buffer and if tr1 and tr2 are the rise times of the two networks, then the overall delay of the two networks together will be –

28. For the network shown in the following fig. one of the following theorems which can be conveniently used to calculate the power consumed by the 10W resistor is –
a. )Thevenin’s theorem
b.) Maximum power transfer theorem
c.) Millman’s theorem
d.) Superposition theorem
29 The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of –
a. )KVL
b.) KCL
c.) Ohm’s law
d.) Both b and c
30. When the driving point impedance of a network at a frequency of 1Hz is then the impedance can be realised as –
31. For a lossless line-
1. Series resistance is zero 2. Shunt conductance is zero
3. Shunt conductance is infinite 4. Series resistance is infinite
a. ) 1 & 2
b. )2 & 3
c. ) 2 & 4
d.)3 & 4
32. When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit then-
a.) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b) Voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) Voltage across both R and C are square
d. )Voltage across both R and C are not square
33. When an A.M. broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kw power when the modulation percentage is 60 then the power of the carrier is-
a. ) 5.00 kw
b.) 7.69 kw
c.) 8.47 kw
d.) 9.17 kw
34. The main components of atmosphere responsible for absorption of em waves are -
a. ) Nitrogen and Oxygen
b. )Nitrogen and hydrogen
c.) Oxygen and water vapour
d. )Nitrogen and water vapour
35. The effective height of a linear antenna of length ‘l’ is say ‘x’ when the current distribution along it’s length is uniform and say, it is ‘y’ when the current distribution is sinusoidal then x/y is equal to -
a.) 2
b.) 1
c. ) 4/ p
d.) p/4
36. In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity -
a.) Increases with increasing frequency
b.)Decreases with increasing frequency
c. )Is independent of frequency
d.)Will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range

37. For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency of (fc is the cut–off frequency )-
a.) 3fc
*

38. When a transmission line having 50 impedance is terminated in a load of ( 40 + j30) W then the VSWR is –
a.)j 0.033
b.)0.8 + j 0.6
c.) 1
d.)2
39. The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propogation at-
a.)High frequencies
b.)Ultra-high frequencies
c. Microwave frequencies
d.)Optical frequencies
40. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by-
a. )100%
b. )150 %
c. )50%
d.) 0%
41. Reluctances in series are –
a. )Subtractive
b.) Additive
c.) Multiplicative
d.) None.
42. When the meters X and Y requires 40 mA and 50 mA respectively for full scale deflection then –
a. )X is more sensitive
b.) Y is more sensitive
c. )both are equally sensitive
d.) not possible to determine from the given data.
43. In the context of ac bridge measurement the term “Wagner Ground” means –
a.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray magnetic effects.
b.) any unwanted and unintended ground connection.
c.) a large metal plate buried in the ground and connected to one corner of the bridge.
d.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray capacitance effects.
44. The gating and counting circuits of a digital counter –
a. )cannot handle MHz signals
b.) cannot handle GHz signals
c. )can handle GHz signals
d.) none.
45. De- sauty bridge is more widely used because of –
a. )simplicity
b. )perfect balance for imperfect capacitors
c. )perfect balance for air capacitors
d.) maximum sensitivity.
46. A schottky diode clamp is used along with a switching BJT for –
a. )reducing the power dissipation.
b. )reducing the switching time
c. )increasing the value of b
d.) reducing the base current.
47. The phenomenon of creeping occurs in –
a. )Energy meters
b.) Ammeters
c. )Wattmeter
d. )Voltmeters
48. A permanent magnet moving coil measures the –
a. )true rms value
b.) dc value
c.) peak value
d. )rms plus dc value
49. The D`Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by adding to it a-
a. )thermocouple
b.) rectifier
c.) chopper
d. )transducer
50. Which one of the following detectors is generally used in ac bridges for audio frequency range ?
a. )Ac voltmeter
b. )CRO
c. )Headphones
d.) Vibration galvanometer.
51. In single phase circuit capacitor used for power factor correction decreases –
a.) The power factor
b.) The line current
c.) Both a and b
d.) The line current and increases power factor
52. In the given figure X the balanced bridge should be
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self-inductance having resistance
b. )A capacitance
c. )A non-Inductive resistance
d. )An inductance and a capacitance in parallel
53. SiO2 layer in an integrated circuit provides –
a. )Electrical connection to external circuit
b.) Physical strength
c. )Isolation
d. )Conducting path
54. For an SCR with turn on time of 5 microsecond, an ideal trigger pulse should have-
a. )short rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
b. )vlong rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
c. )short rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
d.)long rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
55. In a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum a c voltage is-
a) 0.955
b. )0.827
c.) 1.654
d. )1.169
56. In multiple pulse modulation used in PWN inverters, the amplitude and frequency for triangular carrier and square reference signals are respectively 4V, 6 KH2 and 1V, 1KH2. The number of pulses per half cycle and pulse width is respectively-.
a. )6, 900
b. )3, 450
c. )4, 600
d.) 3, 400
57. A four quadrant operation requires-
a. )two full converters in series.
b.) two full converters connected back to back.
c.) two full converters connected in parallel.
d.) two semi converters connected back to back
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

58. In voltage source inverters-
a. )load voltage waveform o depends on load impedance z, where as load current waveform io does not depend on z,
b. )Both o and io depend on z,
c.) o does not depend on z where as depends on z
d. )both o and do not depend on z
59. For an RC driving – point impedance function, the poles and zeros-
a. )should alternate on real axis
b.) should alternate only on the negative real axis
c.) should alternate on the imaginary axis
d.) can lie anywhere on the left half place.
60. The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate – cathode circuit and a zener diode across gate cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate circuit from-
a.) over voltages, over currents.
b. )over currents over voltages.
c. )over currents, noise signals
d. )noise signals, over voltages.
61. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a.)A resonant circuit is used as load
b.) The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c. ) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive
d. )None of the above
62. The circuit diagram shown in the figure consist of transistor is -
a. ) Parallel connection
b.) Cascode connection
c. ) Darlington connection
d. )Cascade connection
63. Increase of current in one transistor in a direct coupled circuit -
a. ) Causes an increase in current in other transistors of the circuit
b. )Causes a decrease in current in other transistor
c. )Does not affect the currents of other transistors connected in the circuit
d. )May either increase or decrease currents of other transistors connected in the circuit.
64. In a PNP transistor the charge carriers in the base region which play an important role in the operation of the transistor are-
a. ) The majority carriers
b.) The minority carriers
c. ) Nothing can be said
d. )None of the above
65. Voltage gain in a CC amplifier is-
a. )Cannot exceed unity
b. )Is always constant
c. ) Is dependent on input signal
d. )Depends on output impedance
66. Random-access-memory means –
a. )memory in a random fashion
b. )memory in a zigzag fashion
c. )memory in a circular fashion
d. )memory in a square fashion
67. BCD code is –
a. )an alphanumeric code
b. )a binary code
c .) the same thing as binary numbers
d. )non-weighed
68. The transfer function of a system is . The phase swift at w = 0 and w = a will be -
a.) 900 and –00
b. )-900 and 900
c. )-1800 and 1800
d. )None of the above
69. Number of resolutions in a 8 bit D/A converter is –
a. )8 bit
b.) 4 bit
c. )6 bit
d.) 10 bit
70. A bistable multivibrator is used as a –
a.) Free running multivibrator
b.) Frequency multiplier
c.) Frequency divider
d. )Wave shaper
71. The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at w = o and w = will be –
a. )900 and -00
b. )–900 and 900
c. )–1800 and 1800
d. )none of the above.
72. A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback control system is equal to The unit step response of this system starting from rest will have its maximum value at a time equal to –
a. )0 sec
b. )0.56 sec
c. )5.6 sec
d.) infinity.

73. To obtain the output position in a position control system, which one of the following transducers is used-
a.) Strain Gauge
b.) Load cell
c. )Synchro
d.) Thermistor

74. The maximum resonance peak for the second order transfer function T(S) = will be –
a. )4
b. )4/3
c. )2

75. Considering control system in the given fig .
For slight variation in G, the ratio of open loop sensitivity to closed pool
sensitivity will be given by-
a.) 1: (1+GH)
b.) 1 : (1+GH)-1
c. )1 : (1-GH)
d. )1 : (1-GH)-1
76 The diversity system in Troposcatter links is made use of to-
a. )Increase the bandwidth
b.) Prevent noise effects
c.) Increase the directivity of the antenna.
d.) Detect signal in the presence of fading.
77. )Mark out wrong statement regarding compandor-
a.) It compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to normal again after demodulation.
b.) It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c.) For weaker signals, it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error.
d. )Weaker signals, transverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is reduced –
78. Among other equipment a sub marine cable repeater contains –
a.) A dc power supply and regulator
b. )Filters for the two directions of transmission
c.) Multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment
d.) Pilot inject and pilot extract equipment
79. In a communication system noice is most likely to affect the signal-
a.) At the transmitter
b.) In the channel
c.) In the information source
d.) At the destination
80. The given circuit is a –
a.) Monostable multivibrator
b.) Frequency division circuit
c.) Miller sweeps circuit
d.) Bootstrap sweep circuit
81. In a plane transverse electromagnetic wave-
a.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is O.
b.)Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 900
c.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 1800
d.) None of above.
82. Directional coupler is a function of-
a.) Two port wave-guide
b.) Four port wove guide
c. )Single port wave-guide
d.) Size port wave-guide.
83. Isolators are used to couple generator and load because –
a.) It increases power of signal
b.) To match any load with generator
c. )To get phase shifted o/p
d.) To differentiate load & generator
84. In travelling wave tube for getting amplified output -
a. )Electron beam travels and RF field remains stationary
b.) Both electron beam and RF field travels in same direction
c. )Both electron beam and RF field remains stationary
d.) RF field travels and electron beam remains stationary

85. Crystal diode works on principle of –
a. )Negative resistance
b. )Positive resistance
c. )Square low
d.) Linear impedance
86. In gunn effect oscillator which mode having lowest operating frequency –
a. )Domain mode
b. )Delayed domain mode
c. )Quenched domain mode
d. )LSA mode
87. In Reflex klystron maximum energy transferred to gap by electrons-
a. )eR
b. )ee
c. )el
d. )eR , ee, el
88. The radio waves get absorbed by atmosphere depends –
a.) Their distance from transmitter is long
b.) Wave power is weak
c. )Improper polarization of wave
d.) Frequency of waves
89. 8085 mP has no of sets of communication lines-
a. )2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d. ) None
90. No. of o/p ports in peripheral mopped I/p are up to-
a.)32
b.) 64
c. ) 128
d.) 256
91. Is two byte instruction-
a.) MOV A, B
b.) ANA B
c.) MV I B, 92 H
d.) LHLD 2050 H
92. Banch instructions-
a. ) only uses flogs setting to make decision.
b. )only sets flogs according to results.
c. ) uses flogs settings as well as sets flogs setting
d. )nighteruse flog settings not set flogs.
93. What will be the time delay achieved from following loop-
Loop DCX B 6
MOV A, C, 4
ORA B 4
JNZ Loop 10
system clock freg. = 2 MHz.
a. ) 10 m s
b.)12 m s
c.) 14 m s
d. 16 m s
94. After execution of pop statement-
a. ) Stack pointer decremented by 2
b.) Stack pointer incremented by 2
c.) Stack pointer decremented by 1
d. )Stack pointer incremented by 1
95. Labels are used as an alternative for-
a.) Data
b.) Register name
c.) Memory address
d) Stack pointer
96. Microprogramming is a technique-
a) For programming the microprocessor
b.) For writing small programs efficiently
c. )For programming the control steps of computer
d.) For programming o/p / i/p
97. 00110010 – 01000101 =?
a.) 00010011
b. )11101101
c. )11100011
d. )11100100
98. When an array is possed as an argument to a function what exactly gets possed-
a.) Address of the array
b. )Values of elements of array
c.) Number of elements of array
d. )Address of the first element of the array
99. A write cycle time means-
a.) Minimum length of write pulse
b.) Minimum amount of time for which data must be valid before write pulse end
c.) Minimum time required between successive write operation
d.) Minimum time for which data must be valid after write pulse ends
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100. If three i/p of a gate are 1, 0, 1 then output is O the gate must be-
a.) NOT
b.) AND
c.) OR
d. )NAND.
101. Inverting amplifier configuration using operational amplifier is –

102. Which logic family is most faster-
a.) ECL
b.) DCTL
c.) RTL
d) TTL
103. For getting positive o/p from two i/p OR gate for positive logic-
a.) both i/p must be positive
b.) both i/p must be negative
c.) any one of i/p must be positive
d.) undefined condition
104. Supercilious is –
a. )Harighty
b.) High brow
c.) Angry
d.) Inane.
105. Give the synonym of ‘moribund’-
a.) Undertaking
b.) Burial
c.) Leather bound
d.) Dying
106. The convention was to end on May 13 with a month long break in between. What do the two prepositions indicate?
a.) Duration
b.) Time
c) Direction
d.) Position
107. According to the writer what influences our dreams-
a. )inner censorships
b.) the stories
c. )the tales
d) none.
108. Vaunted is –
a.) Unvanquished
b.) Fell.
c.)Belittled
d.) Exacting.
109. The sun rays falls vertically on -
a.) Tropics
b.) Doldrums
c.) Poles
d.) Equator
110. Trimurti is associated with -
a.) Ellora
b.) Ajanta
c.) Khajuraho
d.) Elephant caves
111. In which year did the congress adopt “Poorna Swaraj” or complete independence as its goal?
a.) 1930
b.) 1929
c.) 1928
d.) 1942
112. Director of CBI-
a.) D.C Sharma
b.) A. M Shrivastava
c.) P.C Sharma
d.) P.C Dole
113. Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to -
a.) P. gopichand
b.) P. T Usha
c.) Sachin Tendulkar
d.) Gurpreet Singh
114. During which time is vist to Mecca treated as Haj?
a.) Id-Ul-Fitr
b) Id-ul-Zuha
c. )Milad-un-Nabi
d.) Any time
115. Of the 109 known metals, how many occur in nature and how many are produced synthetically in particle accelerators!
a.) 79 and 10
b.) 80 and 29
c. )95 and 14
d.) None can be produced synthetically
116. Earth’s average speed per second around the sun is -
a.) 30 km
b. ) 32 km
c.) 34 km
d.) 35 km
117. Governor of Reserve Bank of India is -
a.) Bimal Jalan
b.) C. Ranga Rajan
c. )Rana Malhotra
d. )S. Venkata Ramanan
118. The first pope to enter a mosque in Damascus syria is -
a )Pope John Paul II
b.) Pope John Paul I
c.) Pope John Paul III
d. )Pope John Paul V
119. Uranium is found in the state of -
a.) Orissa
b.) A. P
c.) Karnataka
d. )Bihar
120. Nuclear Power plant in Pakistan is located at-
a. )Karachi
b.) Peshawar
c. )Ellipse
d.) Paraboloid

BSNL JTO

1. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-
a) Triangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Sinusoidal
d) Rectangular

2. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None

3. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel

5. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
6. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

7. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET

8. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

9. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

10. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps

11. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias

12. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6

13. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats

14. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC

15. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none

16. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b

17. A diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width

18. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
19. When the two networks shown in fig. are equivalent with respect to the terminals 1 and 2 at all frequencies then the values of CA, LB, LC and CC will be –

a) 0.5, 0.33, 6, 0.166
b) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.66
c) 0.5, 3, 3, 2
d) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.166
BSNL Placement Question Paper
20. The transmission parameter of the network C when the transmission parameter of the network A and B are and respectively are -
21. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem

22. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

23. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1

24. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position

25. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network

26. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C

27. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
d) h12

28. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

29. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz

30. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding

31. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
32. One of the following statements which is not true for a strip line compared to a waveguide is –
a) It can be directly connected to semiconductor microwave devices
b) It is much smaller in size
c) It has a smaller bandwidth
d) Losses are less

33. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W

34. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

35. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560

36. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

37. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron

38. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero

39. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these

40. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it’s internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

41. The aperture time of an A to D converter is given by -

42. A memoryless system is –
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none

43. An air capacitor is a –
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device

44. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor

45. Pirani gauge is used to measure –
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow

46. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters

47. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state

48. Q factor of a coil in Maxwell bridge is obtained as –

49. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
BSNL Recruitment and Placement Paper JTO
50. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig

51. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back

52. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P

53. For critical damping of the resonant circuit consisting of Rd, L, C in series is –
d) none of the above

54. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d) an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

55. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature

56. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages

57. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

58. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance

59. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz

60. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses
61. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above

62. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

63. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above

64. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc

65. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
(y denotes don’t care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y

66. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance

67. The 2’s complement of 10002 is –
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001

68. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch

69. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

70. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency

71. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) –200 dB/decade
b) –240 dB/decade
c) –230 dB/decade
d) –320 dB/decade
72. In a unity feed back control system the open loop transfer function is
The closed loop transfer unit will have pole at –
a) –2, -2
b) –2, -1
c) –2, +j1,-j1
d) –2, 2
73. In a compensating network the transfer function is of the form If this is a phase log network the value of should be –
a) exactly equal to 0
b) between 0 and 1
c) exactly equal to 1
d) greater than 1

74. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing
3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

75. A typical control system is shown.
Assuming the steady state errors is given by
*
76. The centre and radius of M of circles are given respectively by

77. The open –loop transfer function for a unity feedback system is –
what is the steady state error if the input is,
r(t) = (2 + 3t + 4t2) u(t)
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
78. The sensitivity SGM of a system with the transfer function is given by

79. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs

80. Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above

81. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF

82. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration

83. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two – tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation

84. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation

85. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
c) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen

86. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current

87. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz –100 GHz
c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz

88. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

89. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None

90. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600

91. The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise

92. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device

93. Scattering matrix equation for directional coupler is –
a)
b)
c)
d)

94. Noise figure is calculated as –
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

95. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
96. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) –5, 1
b) –2.5, 1
c) –5,0-5
d) –5, 2

97. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80

98. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain

99. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
BSNL JTO Placement Papers Questions – Solutions Soon!
100. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace

101. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt

102. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills

103. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet

104. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither

105. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity

106. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
d) None of these

107. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President’s Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned

108. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner

109. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003

110. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW

111. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869

112. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership

113. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10

114. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian

115. India’s first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome

116. Name the author of the famous book “Politics”-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them

117. “Guernica” is Picasso’s painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution

118. The object of the Supreme Court’s Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament’s amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these

119. Which country in July ‘99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China

120. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland

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