AP Transco Memory based question paper (Electrical)

1. Mho relay is usually employed for the protection of
a) Short lines only
b) Medium lines only
c) Long lines only
d) Any line

Ans: Long lines only

2. A modern power semiconductor device IGBT is combines the characteristics of
a) BJT and MOSFET
b) FCT and GTO
c) SCR and MOSFET
d) SCR and BJT

Ans: BJT and MOSFET

3. For a single-phase a.c. to d.c. controlled rectifier to operate in regenerative mode, which of the following conditions should be satisfied?
a) Half –controlled bridge, α < 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
b) Half-controlled bridge, α > 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
c) Full-controlled bridge, α > 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
d) Full-controlled bridge, α < 90°, source of e.m.f. in load

Ans: Full-controlled bridge, α > 90°, source of e.m.f. in load

4. Which is the most suitable power device for high frequency ( more 100 kHz) switching application?
a) Power MOSFET
b) BJT
c) SCR
d) UJT

Ans: Power MOSFET

5. In a thyristor Latching current is ________ than Holding current
a) Equal
b) Less
c) Greater
d) None

Ans: Greater

6. The transfer function of a system is 10/(1+s) when operating as a unity feedback system, the steady state error to a step input will be
a) 0
b) 1/11
c) 10
d) Infinity

Ans: 1/11

7. Which one of the following statements for a dc machine which is provided with inter pole winding (IW) as well as compensating winding (CW) is correct
a) Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding
b) Both IW and CW are connected in parallel with Armature winding
c) IW connected in series but CW is connected in parallel with Armature winding
d) CW connected in series but IW is connected in parallel with Armature winding

Ans: Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding

8. A 0-10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 5mA in a circuit; its bottom control spring snaps out suddenly the meter will now read.
a) 5mA
b) 10mA
c) 2.5mA
d) 0

Ans: 0

9. A dc cumulatively compounded motor delivers rated load torque at rated speed. If series field is short circuited, then the armature current and speed will
a) Both increases
b) Both decreases
c) Increases and decreases
d) Decreases and increases

Ans: Both increases

10. Moving coil in dynamometer wattmeter connected
a) In series with fixed coil
b) Across supply
c) In series with load
d) Across load

Ans: Across supply

11. In an induction machine, if the air gap increased
a) Speed will be reduced
b) Efficiency will be improved
c) Power factor will be lowered
d) Breakdown torque will be reduced

Ans: Power factor will be lowered

12. A CRO screen has ten divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin 314t+45 deg)is examined with a line base settings of 5 msec/div, the number of cycles of signal displayed on the screen will be
a) 0.5 cycles
b) 2.5 cycles
c) 5 cycles
d) 10 cycles

Ans: 2.5 cycles

13. A 3-phase 50HZ SCIM takes a power input of 30 KW at its full load speed of 1440 rpm. Total stator losses are 1 KW. The slip and rotor ohmic losses at full load are
a) 0.02, 600 W
b) 0.04, 580 W
c) 0.04, 1160 W
d) 0.04, 1200 W

Ans: 0.04, 1160 W

14. Thermocouple is used to measure
a) AC
b) DC
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Both

15. The two watt meters measurement the ratio of two meter readings is –(1-sqrt3):( 1+sqrt3) then the power factor is

a) 1
b) 0.866
c) 0.707
d) 0

Ans: 0.707

16. Hays bridge is used to measure___________ and Schering bridge is used to measure____________

a) Inductance, Inductance
b) Inductance, Capacitance
c) Capacitance, Inductance
d) Resistance, Capacitance

Ans: Inductance, Capacitance

17. When sine wave is given as input to Schmitt trigger then its generates

a) Sine wave
b) Saw tooth wave
c) Triangle wave
d) Square wave

Ans: Square wave

18. In Gauss Seidel method the following factors are influenced for operation

a) Acceleration factor
b) Selection of slack buss
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Selection of slack buss*

19.
i. (X’+Y’) A. Low-pass filter function
ii. (X’Y’) B. Sum
iii. (XY) C. NAND
D. Carry
E.NOR

a) i-C, ii-E, iii-D
b) i-C, ii-E, iii-B
c) i-C, ii-B, iii-D
d) i-C, ii-E, iii-A

Ans: i-C, ii-E, iii-D

20. The phase lead compensation is used to
a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot
b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot
c) Increase both rise time and overshoot
d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot

Ans: Decrease rise time and increase overshoot

21. Voltage feed back amplifier is a

a) Shunt-Shunt
b) Shunt-Series
c) Series-Shunt
d) Series- Series

Ans: Shunt-Shunt

22. In microprocessor the next instruction to be executed is stored in

a) Program Counter
b) Stack Pointer
c) Memory Pointer
d) Accumulator

Ans: Program Counter

23. The following element retains it energy after source is disconnected

a) Resister
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
d) Thermistor

Ans:

24. In series RLC circuit at resonant

a) Voltage is in phase with current
b) Current is maximum
c) Inductive reactance = Capacitive reactance
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

25.For RC low pass filter R=100 K ohms, C= 5 micro farads then lower cutt of frequency is

a) 1 K HZ
b) 0 HZ
c) 381.3 HZ
d) Infinity

Ans:

26. V=100Sin (1000t+46 deg), I=2Sin (1000t+80 deg) what are the elements in the circuit

a) R=30 ohm, L=30 mH
b) R=30 ohm, C=33.3 micro farads
c) R=40 ohm, L=30 mH
d) R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads

Ans: R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads

27. L=10 mH, I=100Sin50t 0
a)
b)
c)
d)

Ans:

28. In dielectric measurement, the dielectric loss is proportional to

a) F
b) V
c) I
d) Vsqr

Ans: Vsqr

29. G(s) = (1-s)/s(s+2) then closed loop transfer function is

a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Marginally stable
d) All

Ans: Stable

30. G(s) = (1+0.5s)/(1+s) find which type of net work it is

a) Lead net work
b) Lag net work
c) Lag - Lead net work
d) Lead - Lag net work

Ans: Lag net work

31. Temperature of electrode in Arc furnace is

a) 1000 deg
b) 1500 deg
c) 1500 deg to 3500 deg
d) 4500 deg

Ans:

32. In bode plot the point which separates the lower and upper frequencies is called

a) Critical point
b) Cut-off point
c)
d)

Ans:

33. Nyquest stability is used to determine

a) Absolute Stability
b) Relative Stability
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Both*

34. When 220V dc shunt alternator generating the voltage at rated value. If direction of rotation is reversed, then alternator will

a) Build up its voltage with same polarity
b) Build up its voltage with opposite polarity
c) No build up of voltage
d) None

Ans: No build up of voltage

35. Over lap Angle depends on_________

a) Load inductance
b) Loa capacitance
c) Source inductance
d) Source capacitance

Ans: Source inductance

36. Area under speed time curve gives

a) Time
b) Speed
c) Distance
d) None

Ans: Distance

37. The regulation of Short Transmission lines depends up on

a) Distance of line
b) Frequency
c) Power factor
d) All

Ans: Power factor

38. Which of the following plant is having lowest load factor?

a) Diesel Plant
b) Pumped storage Plant
c) Thermal Plant
d) Nuclear Plant

Ans: Diesel Plan

39. For SR latch whent the out put is undesirable

a) 0, 0
b) 1, 0
c) 0, 1
d) 1, 1

Ans: 1, 1

40. For interrupting capacitive currents which Circuit Breaker (CB) is used

a) SF6 CB
b) Oil CB
c) Vacuum CB
d) Air blast CB

Ans: Vacuum CB

41. For V/F control, when frequency is increased in transformer

a) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current decreases
b) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current increases
c) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases
d) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current increases

Ans: Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases


42. In ceiling fan the angle between auxiliary winding a main winding is

a) 0 deg
b) 90 deg
c) 180 deg
d) 360 deg

Ans: 90 deg

43. In a shaded pole motor, shaded rings are used to

a) Field flux production
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Field flux production

44. Practical method of improving string efficiency

a) Increasing crass arms length
b) Using different size of insulators
c) Using different insulator materials
d) Using of guard rings

Ans: Increasing crass arms length*

45. In which type of fault all 3-phase components are equal

a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) 3-Phase fault

Ans: 3-Phase fault

46. 11/220 KV 100 MVA transformers, the primary base voltage rating is 10 KV then secondary base KV is

a) 10 KV
b) 220 KV
c) 220/sqrt3
d)

Ans: 220/sqrt3*

47. Water hamming effect is occurs in

a) Surge tank
b) Penstock
c) Turbine
d) Reservoir

Ans: Penstock

48. Transient stability can be improved by

a) By putting series capacitor
b) By using dynamic resister
c) Auto re-closers
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

49. If sending end voltage is Vs at no-load in a transmission line then receiving end voltage is if ABCD parameters of line is given

a) Vs
b) Vs/A
c) 0
d) Infinity

Ans: Vs/A

50. Harmonics are eliminated by using

a) Skewing of rotor
b) Distribution winding
c) Short pitch winding
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

51. For parallel operation of transformer at no load, then load shared are equal when

a) Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating

52. In Induction motor Slip frequency of rotor current, when rotor speed is Nr. Then rotor producing slip field rotates with respect to stator is

a) Slip frequency
b) Nr
c) Ns
d) None

Ans: Ns

53. Good regulation means

a) Less fluctuations from no-load to full-load
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Less fluctuation from no-load to full-load

54. At dead short circuit at terminals of Alternator then the current I is

a) ZPF Lag
b) ZPF lead
c) Unity power factor
d) 0.8 Power factor lag

Ans: ZPF Lag

55. Full scale Ammeter reading is 10 mA, Voltage across Ammeter is 100 mV. Then for 100 A measurements the power loss in the circuit is

a) 1 W
b) 10 W
c) 100 W
d) 1000 W

Ans: 10 W*

56. When Alternator excitation increases and machine is operating at lagging power factor then

a) I increase
b) I decreases
c) No effect on current
d) None

Ans: I increase

57. Flue gases coming out from furnace is first going through

a) Turbine
b) Economizer
c) Air pre-heater
d) Chimney

Ans: Economizer

58. Two alternators rated are 200 KW at 4% regulation, 400 KW 5% regulation operating in parallel at 50HZ , when supply 600 KW the new frequency is

a) 50
b) 49
c) 51.3
d) 47.7

Ans: 47.7

59. Va and Vb are negative sequence component voltages the difference angle between Va and Vb with respect to Va is

a) 240
b) 120
c) 180
d) 360

Ans: 120

60. 4-Quadrent operation of chopper I is positive but V is may be positive are negative operates in which quadrant

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4

Ans: 1 and 4

61. Heat convection, radiation, and conduction all are takes place in

a) Ice
b) Boiler
c) Refrigerator
d) Flue gases in pipe

Ans:

62. When moving iron meter is used to measure d.c current what is the disadvantage

a) It calibration in rms value
b)
c)
d)

Ans:

63. When maximum power transfer to load is

a) 20 W
b) 50 W
c) 100W
d) 0W

Ans: 0W

64. Find Zbus Parameters

a) Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm

65. Find Z11 and Z12

a) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
b) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 5 ohm
c) Z11=5 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
d) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 3 ohm

Ans:

66. Current in 5 ohm resister is

a) 10 A
b) -10 A
c) 5 A
d) -5 A

Ans: -10 A

67. Find I in the circuit at t=0+

a) 2 A
b) 5 A
c) 7 A
d) 10 A

Ans:

68. Find voltage across inductor at t=0+

a) 0 V
b) 2.5 V
c) 5 V
d) 10 V

Ans: 5 V

69. This wave is applied to the PMMC meter, meter reads

a) 0 V
b) 3 V
c) 2 V
d) 1 V

Ans: 1 V

70. Find Vab

a) Zero
b) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
c) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
d) None

Ans:

71. Find E in the circuit

a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) None

Ans: None

72. Vab is reference then angle between Vab and Ib is

a) -15 deg
b) 240 deg
c) 180 deg
d) -45 deg

Ans: -15 deg*



63. When maximum power transfer to load is
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 20 W
b) 50 W
c) 100W
d) 0W
Ans: 0W
64. Find Zbus Parameters
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm
65. Find Z11 and Z12
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
b) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 5 ohm
c) Z11=5 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
d) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 3 ohm
Ans:
66. Current in 5 ohm resister is
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 10 A
b) -10 A
c) 5 A
d) -5 A
Ans: -10 A
67. Find I in the circuit at t=0+
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 2 A
b) 5 A
c) 7 A
d) 10 A
Ans: 2 A
68. Find voltage across inductor at t=0+
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 0 V
b) 2.5 V
c) 5 V
d) 10 V
Ans: 5 V
69. This wave is applied to the PMMC meter, meter reads
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 0 V
b) 3 V
c) 2 V
d) 1 V
Ans: 1 V
70. Find Vab
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) Zero
b) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
c) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
d) None
Ans:
71. Find E in the circuit
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) None
Ans: None
72. Vab is reference then angle between Vab and Ib is
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) -15 deg
b) 240 deg
c) 180 deg
d) -45 deg
Ans: -15 deg*

POWER SYSTEMS

POWER SYSTEMS

Q.A wave will not experience any reflection when impedance of line is equal to

a surge impedance
b load impedance
c >surge impedance
d
Ans: surge impedance

Q.if the length of a wire is increased what happens to its resistance

a increases linearly
b increases exponentially

Q.for a current carrying coil if the current is doubled then the field strength is

a doubled
b halved
c increased 4 times

Q.a capacitor of 10 micro farads is charged thruogh a resistor of 10 ohms and a 6 V battery. Calculate the time taken by the capacitor to charge to its maxm value.

a 1 sec
b 100 sec
c 0.1 sec
d 10 sec

Q.what current is drawn by a 10 W lamp connected to a 220 V,60 Hz source.

a 1 A
b 0.5 A
c 0.045 A
d 0.01 A

Ans: 0.045

Q.At present how many HVDC lines are there in india?

a none
b one
c two
d more than two

Q.What is the distance between the EHV lines and earth?

a 8m
b 11m
c 18m
d 15m

Q.On no load in EHV lines what is the relation between receinving and sending end voltage?

a receiving end voltage > sending end voltage
b receiving end voltage < sending end voltage
c receiving end voltage = sending end voltage
d none

Ans: receiving end voltage > sending end voltage

Q.What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line?

a 400 MW
b 400 KW
c 1600 MW
d 1600 KW

Ans: 400 MW

Q.What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line with surge impedance given as 160 ohms

a 1000 MW
b 1000 KW
c 256 MW
d 256 KW

Ans: 1000 MW

Q.Where is the hydel power plant located in following places?

a Raamagundam
b Tarapur
c Kalpakam
d Srisailam

Ans: Raamagundam

Q.self GMD is used in the calculation of_______

a inductance only
b inductance and capacitance
c capacitance only
d none

Ans: inductance only

Q.What is the GMD if the distance between the lines are 6m,6m,12m?

a 7.55m
b 6m
c 12m
d 8.56m

Ans: 7.55m

Q.Zero sequence currents doesn't exist in the following fault

a L-G
b L-L
c L-L-G
d L-L-L-G

Ans: L-L


Q.To avoid arcing connect sutable value of ________ in earthing.

a capacitance
b indunctance
c resistance
d susceptance

Ans: indunctance

Q.In the following type of conductors the corona is minimum

a circular
b stranded
c helical
d rectamgular

Ans:circular

Q.At what frequency corona loss is more?

a 50Hz
b 60Hz
c 25Hz
d 100Hz

Ans: 100HZ

Q.What is the line current of a circuit when the current transformer of 1000:5 rating measures 4Amperes?

a 5000 A
b 1000 A
c 400 A
d 800A

Ans: 800A

Q.If the time delay of relay with TMS setting 0.1 is 10 sec, then what is the time delaty when the TMS setting is changed to 0.5

a 2 sec
b 20 sec
c 100 sec
d 5 sec

Ans: 5 sec

Q.In distribution lines_____

a X/R<0.1
b X/R>10
c X/R<1
d X/R<0.01

Ans: X/R<1

Q.In EHV lines _____

a X/R=10
b X/R=100
c X/R>3
d X/R<3

Ans: X/R>3

Q.In wind mills the frequent problems occur in______

a mechanical system
b blades
c electrodynamic system
d electric system

Q.The machine used in windmills is______

a Alternator
b Induction generator
c Synchronous generator
d All

Ans: Induction generator

Q.Insulators in EHV lines are designed based on_____

a switching voltages
b peak voltages
c corona
d lightning voltages

Ans: switching voltages

Q.The value of restriking voltage depends on______

a inductance of line
b capacitance of line
c both
d none

Ans: both

Q.HRC fuse and circuit-breaker combination is used CB operates for

a low over-load currents
b high over-load currents
c combination is never used

Ans: low over-load currents

Q. SIL of 400 KV lines is

a 400 MW
b 400 KW
c 1600 MW
d 1600 KW

Ans: 400 MW

Q. SIL of 100 KV cable is

a 400 MW
b 400 KW
c 250 MW
d 250 KW

Ans: 250 MW

Q.reflection coefficent of current of an open ended line.

a 1
b -1
c 2
d -2

Ans: -1

Q.Positive sequence terminal voltage is zero in

a L-L
b L-L-G
c L-G
d L-L-L

Ans: L-L-L

Q.Most economical load in underground cable is

a less than surge impedance
b equal to surge impdance
c more than surge impedence
d any load

Ans: less than surge impedance

Q.The impedance of a lossless transmission line is

a v(L/C)
b L/C
c 1/vLC
d 1/LC

Q.Zsc =100? Zoc =1? then Zo is

a 1
b 10
c 100
d 0.1

Ans: 10

Q.Normal PH value of water used in thermal power station is

a 7
b 2
c 5
d Slightly >7

Ans: Slightly >7

Q.Maximum power transfer through line V1= 110 kv, V2= 100kv, X=22 ohm is

a 500 MW
b 500 KW
c 250 MW
d 250 KW

Ans: 500 MW

Q.Which type of power plant requires maximum expenditure

a Hydel power plants
b Nuclear power plants
c Thermal power plants
d Gas based power plants

Q.Base load of a power station stands for

a 2-4 hours/day
b 4-8 hours/day
c 8-12 hours/day
d 12-24hours/day

Ans: 12-24hours/day

Q.A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line to protect from

a surge high voltage
b Direct lightning strocks
c indirect lightnin strocks
d Switching over voltages

Ans: Direct lightning strocks

Q.A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line acts as

a acts as a phase wire
b acts as neutral
c acts as a transmission wire
d acts as ground wire

Ans: acts as ground wire

ANALOG ELECTRONICS

Q. Power diode is generally made from
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Both
d) None of these

Q. When the both junction of NPN diode is reverse biased, then the diode is in which mode
a) Active
b) Cutoff
c) Saturation
d) inverted

Q. Which transistor mode gives the inverted output
a) Common Emitter
b) Common Base
c) Common Collector
d) None of these

Q. Which coupling gives the higher gain in case of amplifier
a) Capacitor coupling
b) Impedance coupling
c) Transformercoupling

Q. Which distortion is least objectionable in audio amplification
a) Phase
b) Frequency
c) Harmonic
d) Intermediation

Q. A narrow band amplifier has a band pass nearly…………of central frequency
a) 33.3%
b) 10%
c) 50%

Q. Phase shift oscillator consists
a) RL
b) RC
c) RLC

Q. Multivibrater Produces
a) Sine wave
b) Square wave
c) Smooth wave
d) sawtooth

Q. Convert the 101101 Binary number into octal no
a) 65
b) 55
c) 51
d) 45

Ans: 55

Q. 10 in BCD
a) 10100
b) 1100
c) 010111
d) None of these

Ans: None of these

Q. Which PNP device has a terminal for synchronizing purpose
a) SCS
b) Triac
c) Diac
d) SUS

Q. Addition of indium in semiconductor crystal makes
a) PNP
b) NPN

Q. Free electron exists in which band
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) Conduction band

Q. Ripple factor of half wave rectifier
a) 1.21
b) 0.48
c) 0.5

Q. Transistor that can be used in enhancement mode
a) NPN
b) UJT
c) JFET
d) MOSFET

Q. Following contributes to harmonic distortion in Amplifier
a) +Ve feedback
b) –Ve feedback
c) Defective active device

Q. High cutoff frequency
a) CB
b) CC
c) CE

Q. Which is used as data selector?
a) Encoder
b) Decoder
c) modulator
d) Demodulator

Q. Read write capable memory
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Both
d) None of these

Q.the radix or base of hexadecimal number system is -----------
a) 8
b) 16
c) 5
d) none of these

Ans: 16

Q.the no of 1’s in the binary representation of the expression 162*9+162*7+16*5+3 are
a) 10
b) 23
c) 6
d) 4

Q. the no of latches in F/F are -------
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Q.how many flip-flops are required to construct Mod -12 counter
a) 5
b) 4
c) 12
d) none

Ans: 4

Q. which logic gate has the output is compliment of its input ----------
a) OR
b) AND
c) NOT
d) X-OR

Ans: NOT

Q.no.of 2-input multiplexers needed to construct a 210 input multiplexer…….
a) 12
b) 31
c) 20
d) 16

Q.By adding inverters to the inputs and output of a AND gate we can obtain ……………
a) OR
b) AND
c) NOT
d) X-OR

Ans: X-OR

Q.how many NAND gates are needed to realize OR gate --------------
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Ans: 3

Q.which is the first integrated logic family ---------------
a) RTL
b) DTL
c) TTL
d) none of these

Q. Which logic gate has output high if and only if all inputs are low ---------?
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) X-NOR
d) AND

Ans: NAND

Q.According to Boolean algebra 1+A+B+C =
a) A
b) A+B+C
c) 1
d) none of these

Ans: 1

Q. If a=0x6db7 and b=0x2ae9 then what is the value of a”b--------------
a) binary number for 1001.1101?
b) decimal number for 19?
c) excess-3 code for 29?

Q.what is the value of A'+1 ?
a) A
b) A'
c) 1
d) none of these

Ans: 1

Q.2 in 4 bit number one bit indicates sign of the number then the locations are from
a) -8 to 8
b) -7 to 7
c) -16 to 16
d) None

Q.Avalanche photo diode is used when compared to PIN diode bcz
a)larger band width
b)high sensitivity
C)-------
d)--------

Q.some non zero DC voltage is to RC low pass circuit then the DC voltage in the output contains
a) Same as in input
b) Higher than input
c) Zero
d) Slightly increases

Q.if the output of the gate is always high then the gates applied to this logic are 0,0
a) NAND and EX-NOR
b) NAND and NOR
c) AND and X-NOR
d) OR and XOR

Ans:a

Q.Thermal Run away is not possible in FET bcz the flow of
a)minority careers
b)Transconductance
c)_____
d)none

Ans : minority careers

Q.which of the following is/are true about 1's and 2's compements:
i)In 1's complement form. 0 has two representations
ii)in 1's complement, the magnitude of lowest number is equal to the magnitude of highest number
iii)In 2's complement, 0 has two representations

a) i only
b) i and ii
c) iii only
d) all of these

Q.In the hybrid parameter model of a transistor reverse transfer voltage ratio and forward transfer current ratio are respectively given by:
a) h11 and h21
b) h12 and h11
c) h21 and h11
d) None of these

Q.The largest negative no can be represented with 8 bits in 2's compliment representation?
a)-256
b)-255
c)-127
d)-128

Ans: -128

Q. How many NAND gates required to implement AB+CD+EF
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Ans: 4

Q. Transparent latch is seen in which type of flip flop
a) SR FF
b) D FF
c) JK FF
d) D FF

Ans: D FF

Q. Odd parity generator uses which logic?
a) Digital
b) Analog
c) Sequential
d) none

Q. Which type of ADC is fastest?
a) SARC
b) Counter type
c) Intigrated type
d) Flash

ANS: Flash/Parallel

Q. Which one of the following is fastest read/writable memory?
a) PROM
b) EEPROM
c) Flash
d) none

Ans: Flash

8. In array programming which one is used
a) SISD
b) PISD
c) MISD
d) None

Q.Which one of the following has high I/p impedance
a) CC
b) CB
c) CE
d) None

Q. The maximum time allowed time for each flip flop for a mod 10 synchronous counter if each flip flop delay is 25ns.
a) 25 ns
b) 50 ns
c) 100 ns
d) none

Q. The resolution for a DAC is given by 0.4% then no. of bits of DAC is
a) 8- bits
b) 16- bits
c) 32- bits
d) none

Ans: 8- bits

41) The chip capacity is 256 bits, then the no.of chips required to build 1024 B memory Is
a) 32
b) 16
c) 15
d) 4

Q. Which of the following are correct?
1)A flip-flop is used to store 1-bit of information
2)Race around condition occurs in JK flip flop when both the inputs are 1
3)Master slave flip flop is used to store 2 bits of information
4)A transparent latch consists of a D- flip flop

a) 1,2,3
b) 1,3,4
c) 1,2,4
d) 2,3,4

Ans: 1,2,4

Q. output resistance of ideal OP AMP is
a) 0
b) 1
c) infinite
d) very high

ANS: 0

Q. CMRR of an OP AMP is given as 80db and Ad is 20000.Value of Acm will be
a) 4
b) 8
c) 2
d) 1

Ans: 2

Q.Si,Ge lie in ........block of periodic table
a) III
b) V
c) IV A
d) IV B

Ans: IV A

Q.to obtain 10 mV resolution on 5 V range how many bit DAC is to be used
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32

Q.% resolution of a 10 bit ADC
a) 1.588%
b) 0.392%
c) 0.0978%
d) 0.0244%

Ans: 0.0978%

Q.Efficiency of half wave rectifier
a) 45%
b) 50%
c) 86%
d) 100%

Ans: 45%

Basic Electrical Engineering By C.L. Wadhwa

1200 DISCOM Jobs soon

Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010

Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010

Electric Circuits:

Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, star/ delta
transformation; electromagnetic induction; mutual induction; ac fundamentals;
harmonics, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis,
resonance, ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and
Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits, power
measurement .

Electrical Machines:

Single phase transformer - equivalent circuit, phasor diagram,
tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers - connections, parallel
operation; auto-transformer; DC machines - types, windings, generator/ motor
characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors;three phase induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines - performance, regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications .

Power Systems:

Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models andperformance; underground cable, string insulators; corona; distribution systems; per-unit
quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power
factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles
of over-current, differential and distance protection; protection of alternator, transformer,
transmission lines neutral earthing, solid state relays and digital protection; circuit
breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion
Utilization & Control Systems: Principles of feedback; transfer function; block
diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Nyquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag,
lead and lead-lag compensation; Heating - resistance, induction, dielectric; Welding –
spot, seam and butt; Electric traction – speed-time curves, tractive effort;

Measurements:

Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and
induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power
factor; digital voltmeters and multi-meters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Qmeters;oscilloscopes;

Analog and Digital Electronics:

Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers -biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers;Combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; A/D and D/A converters; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.Power Electronics and Drives: Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors,triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs - static characteristics and principles of operation;triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters - fully controlled and half controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basic concepts of adjustable speed dc and ac drives.

Model Question Paper

The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below. Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
Candidates have to bring their own pencils and erasers.

1.The armature of a d.c machine is made of
(A) Silicon steel (B) Wrought iron (C) Cast steel (D) Soft iron

2.The main drawbacks of d.c shunt generator is that
(A)Shunt circuit has high resistance (B) Generator voltage is small (C) Terminal voltage drops considerably with load (D) It is expensive

3.Transformers usually transfer electrical energy from primary to secondary with change in
(A) Frequency (B) Voltage (C) Power (D) Time period

TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED NOTIFICATION RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF Assistant Engineer(Elec.,/Telecom / Civil)

TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED
NOTIFICATION
RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF Assistant Engineer(Elec.,/Telecom / Civil)

Applications are invited On-line through APTRANSCO WEBSITE www.aptransco.gov.in
and http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in from 05.01.2010 to 25.01.2010 (to 23.01.2010 for
payment of fees) from eligible Engineering Graduates for filling up the following
vacancies on regular basis in APTRANSCO--Engineering Service.
The AP Transco has dispensed with the sale of applications by post/ through
Sales Counter of AP Transco. The desirous eligible Candidates may apply ON-LINE by
satisfying themselves with the terms and conditions of this recruitment.
B.L- Backlog; G.R- General recruitment;
These vacancies are subject to variation at the time of recruitment based on the
necessity.
Percentage of reservation: BC-25% + 4% Muslim reservation subject to
orders of Government from time to time.
SC- 15%, ST-6%, PH-3%
33 1/3 % reservation for women is applicable as
per rules.
Detailed notification with break-up of vacancies, Scale of Pay, Age,
Community, Educational Qualifications and other instructions along with syllabus for
the written examination may be viewed at AP Transco website
(www.aptransco.gov.in) from 05.01.2010.
NOTE:
1. The applicants are required to go through the detailed notification and decide
themselves as to their eligibility for this recruitment carefully before applying and
enter the particulars completely online.
2. Candidates are required to retain a photocopy of application form with
Reference ID for future reference.
3. Candidates have to submit application only through online mode well in
advance of the last date to avoid last day rush.
4. Hand written / typed / Photostat copies/ printed application form will not be
entertained by AP Transco by post or in person.
PTO
Asst. Engineer/
Electrical
Asst. Engineer/
Telecom
Asst. Engineer/
Civil
Name of the
Zone
B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total
Visakapatnam 10 37 47 1 - 1 - 2 2
Vijayawada 7 39 46 3 - 3 - 2 2
Kadapa 12 35 47 2 - 2 - 2 2
Hyderabad 12 35 47 2 1 3 1 2 3
Warangal 8 38 46 2 - 2 - 2 2
Total 49 184 233 10 1 11 1 10 11
: 2:
FEE:
Each applicant must pay Rs. 150/- (Rupees One hundred and Fifty Only) towards
Application Processing Fee.
i) Applicants under General category must also pay RS.350/- (Three
Hundred and Fifty ONLY) towards Examination Fee. (Applicants
belonging to SC/ST/BC Communities and PH need not pay this fee).
ii) Candidates belonging to States other than Andhra Pradesh will be
considered in general category only and are required to pay the aboveprescribed
fee.
Mode of Payment of Fee: The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee as per the
notification in any one of the A.P. Online centers and obtain Fee paid receipt with
Journal Number( 12 digit) in the first instance. Applicants can also pay the fee
through AP Online portal.
Submission of Application: After payment of Fee, the Candidate has to logon to the
website http:// www.aptransco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or
directly visit http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in to view the detailed notification, User
Guide and Application Form. The applicants have to invariably fill all the
relevant fields in the Application. Immediately on submission of application
the Applicant will get an acknowledgement in the form of a downloadable pdf
document.
Starting date for Payment of Fee and Application submission is 05.01.2010.
Last date for payment of Fee at AP Online is 23.01.2010
Last date for submission of Application is 25.01.2010 up to 7 P.M
Place: Hyderabad CHIEF GENERAL MANAGER
Date : (HRD &Trg.)
:3:
INSTRUCTIONS
I. Instructions for Scanning of Photograph with Signature
Photo width= 3.5cm
Photo Height= 4.5cm
Signature Space = 1.5 cm
1. Paste the Photo on any white paper as per the above required dimensions. Sign in the
Signature Space provided. Ensure that the signature is within the box.
2. Scan the above required size containing photograph and signature. Please do not scan
the complete page.
3. The entire image (of size 3.5 cm by 6.0 cm) consisting of the photo along with the
signature is required to be scanned and stored in *.jpg format on local machine.
4. Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more that 50KB.
5. If the size of the file is more than 50 KB, then adjust the settings of the scanner such
as the dpi resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning.
6. The candidate has to sign in full in the box provided. Since the signature is proof of
identity, it must be genuine and in full; initials are not sufficient. Signature in CAPITAL
LETTERS is not permitted.
7. The signature must be signed only by the candidate and not by any other person.
8. The signature will be used to put on the Hall Ticket and wherever necessary. If the
candidate’s signature on the answer script, at the time of the examination, does not
match the signature on the Hall Ticket, the candidate will be disqualified.
Sample Photo and Signature
e.g. The Technical Specifications of the sample scanned image shown above are:
• Size of the file < 50 KB
• Dpi setting = 200 dpi
• True Colour
The candidate has to upload his/her Photo with Signature in the prescribed format by
clicking on the browse button at the time of submission of application form.
II. ELIGIBILITY:
1.AGE: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.07.09.
Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years in respect of
SC/ST/BC candidates and up to 10 years in respect of
P.H candidates.
2.EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS:
a) Assistant Engineers/Electrical: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E,
Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent qualification in the
similar discipline from any recognized University in India.
b) Assistant Engineers/Telecom: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, in
Telecommunications/Electronics/ Electronics and Communication or
equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any recognized
University in India.
c) Assistant Engineers/Civil: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, Civil
Engineering or equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any
recognized University in India.
III.SELECTION PROCEDURE:
i) The selection of candidates for appointment will be made 100% on Written
examination.
ii) Only those candidates who qualify in the written examination by being ranked
high, community wise will be called for verification of Original Certificates in 1:2
ratio.
(iii) The minimum qualifying marks in the written test for the above selection
process shall be as follows:
OC - 40%
BC - 35%
SC/ST - 30%
Or as per Rules
Note: Mere securing minimum qualifying marks doesn’t vest, any right to a
candidate for being called for verification of original certificates.
IV. Details of Written Examination:
i) Syllabus: The syllabus for the written examination is placed at Annexure I.
ii) Hall Tickets: The hall tickets will be placed on the website seven days prior
to the date of examination. The candidate has to down load the Hall ticket from the
website only. Hall tickets will not be sent to the candidates by post.
iii) Date of examination:
(a) The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/ Elec., will
be held on 07.02.2010 at 10 AM to 12 Noon.
(b) The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/Telecom
and Civil will be held on 07.02.2010 at 2 PM to 4 PM.
iv) Examination Centers: The written examination for recruitment of
Assistant Engineer/ Elec., /Telecom/Civil will be held at different centers
located only in Hyderabad & Secunderabad.
v). Instructions to Candidates at the time of Written Examination:
1. The test is of two ours duration. The date and time are indicated on the Hall
ticket. Candidates should reach the test center in time. Candidates will be
allowed in to the examination hall half an hour before the scheduled starting
time. Candidates will not be allowed into the examination hall after the test has
started and will not be permitted to leave examination hall before the closure of
test time under any circumstances.
2. The test will be of objective type with multiple-choice questions with only one
answer being correct among the four alternatives suggested.
3. A separate O M R (Optical mark Reader) answer sheet will be provided to the
candidates. The candidate has to indicate his response to each question by
darkening the appropriate bubble with a HB Pencil.
4. The candidate has to bring a good quality HB Pencil, eraser, sharpener and
blue/black pen or ball point pen to the examination hall.
5. The candidate has to follow meticulously all the instructions given on the
question paper booklet and OMR Answer Sheet, else his answer sheet may not be
valued.
6. Usage of Calculators/mathematical tables is not permitted. Candidates should
not bring cell phones or any other electronic gadgets to the examination hall.
V. TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICE:
1. Scale of Pay: Rs.13905-575-15055-670-18405-770-21485.
2. Training cum Probation: The candidates appointed to the post shall be placed
on Training-cum-Probation for a period of 2 years. During the period of Trainingcum-
Probation he/she will be paid the minimum of the pay scale along with
admissible allowances.
3. Place of posting: The candidates appointed shall be required to work at the
substations of APTRANSCO for a minimum period of 3 years.
4. The candidate will be governed by the rules and regulations applicable or as
framed by the AP Transco and as amended from time to time. The Tripartite
Agreement entered into between the APSEB, govt of A.P and the Employees
Associations is not applicable to these candidates and they shall at no stage be
entitles to claim any right what so ever arising out of the said Tripartite Agreement.
VI. EXECUTION OF BOND :
(i) The candidates appointed will be required to execute a Bond (in Non-
Judicial stamp paper worth Rs.110/- (Rupees One hundred and ten
only) at the time of joining, to serve APTRANSCO for a MINIMUM
period of 5 Years after completion of Training-cum-Probation period
(2 years).
(ii) During the above bond period the candidates will deposit his/her
original certificates such as Degree, date of birth and community, etc
with APTRANSCO. The Certificates so deposited with APTRANSCO shall
not be returned during the above bond period.
(iii) The Candidate who leaves the APTRANSCO service during the
Training-cum-Probation period shall refund the emoluments received
by him/her plus Rs.30, 000/- (Rupees Thirty thousand only) by way of
liquidated damages.
(iv) The Candidate who leaves the APTRANSCO service without serving a
minimum period of 5 years after completion of Training-cum-Probation
period shall have to pay a sum of Rs.60, 000/-(Rupees Sixty Thousand
Only) by way of liquidated damages to the Corporation.
VII. HOW TO APPLY:
HOW TO UPLOAD THE APPLICATION FORM:
i) The Applicants have to read the User Guide for Online Submission of Applications
and then proceed further.
I Step:- Payment of Fee: The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee as per
the notification in any one of the A.P. Online centers and obtain Fee paid receipt
with Journal Number in the first instance. Applicants can also pay the fee through
APOnline portal.
II Step:- Submission of Application: After payment of Fee, the Candidate has to
logon to the website http:// www.aptransco.gov.in and click on APPLY
ONLINE link or directly visit http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in to view the detailed
notification, User Guide and Application Form. The applicants have to provide
payment details (journal number and date) and upload the scanned copy of
passport size photograph with signature (see instructions for scanning and
uploading photograph with signature) and then invariably fill all the relevant
fields in the Application. Immediately on submission of application, applicant
will get an acknowledgement in the form of a downloadable pdf document.
ii) Hand written/ Typed/ Photostat copies/ Outside printed Application Form
will not be accepted and liable for rejection.
iii) Only applicants willing to serve anywhere in the Andhra Pradesh should apply.
iv) For any problems related to Online submission and downloading of Hall-Tickets
please contact Help Desk No. 9246290436 (Call Time: 9.30 A.M to 1.00 P.M &
1.30 P.M to 5.30 P.M) or log on to http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in click on to complaint
box.
VIII. FEE
i) Each applicant must pay Rs. 150/- (Rupees One hundred
and Fifty Only) towards Application Processing Fee.
ii) Applicants under General category must also pay RS.350/-
(Three Hundred and Fifty ONLY) towards Examination Fee.
(Applicants belonging to SC/ST/BC Communities and PH need not pay
this fee).
NOTE:
1. AP Transco is not responsible, for any discrepancy in submitting through Online.
The applicants are therefore, advised to strictly follow the instructions and User
guide in their own interest.
2. Applicant must compulsorily fill-up all relevant fields of application and submit
application through website only.
3. Incomplete/incorrect application form will be summarily rejected. AP Transco
under any circumstances will not entertain the information if any furnished by the
candidate subsequently. Applicants should be careful in filling-up of the application
form at the time of submission. If any lapse is detected during the scrutiny, the
candidature will be rejected even though he/she comes through the final stage of
recruitment process or even at a later stage.
4. Before payment of fee, submission of application form, the candidates should
carefully ensure his/her eligibility for this notification. No relevant column of the
application form should be left blank; otherwise application form will not be
accepted.
5. The applications received online in the prescribed proforma available in the
website and within the time shall only be considered and the AP Transco will not be
held responsible for any kind of discrepancy.
6. Applicants must compulsorily upload his/her own scanned photo with signature in
jpg format only.
General
• Candidates belonging to States other than Andhra Pradesh will be
considered in general category only and are required to pay the aboveprescribed
fee.
• The candidate should not furnish any false tampered, fabricated
information or suppress any material information while filling up the
application form.
• Candidates called for verification of certificates will be required to furnish
documentary proof in evidence of the following as and when called for.
a) Age: Proof of age as recorded in SSC certificate or
equivalent.
b) Qualification of BE/B. Tech/AMIE or equivalent from any
recognized University in India.
c) Permanent Community certificate issued by MRO in original or
Original caste certificate issued by Revenue Officer not less than
the rank of MRO issued on or after 01-07-2008 in respect of
SC/ST & BC candidates clearly indicating the Sub-Caste and
group.
d) Physically Handicapped certificate indicating the minimum 40%
of disability issued by District Medical Board.
e) Study Certificate / Residential Certificate issued by the Officer of
the Revenue Department not below the rank of Tahsildar in
independent charge of Mandal as the case may be .
• Candidates will be required to appear for written test as and when
conducted at their own cost.
• Admission for written test or calling the qualified candidates in the
written test to furnish documentary proof does not confer any right for
appointment.
• The degrees awarded by the Universities/institutions that are
recognized by the U.G.C, D.E.C (Under IGNOU) and AICTE as the case
shall only be considered.
• The decision of the Selection Committee/AP TRANSCO is final in
selection and allotment of candidates.
IX. BREAK UP OF VACANCIES
Consequent to implementation of the spirit of A. P. Public Employment
(Organization of Local Cadres & Regulation of Direct Recruitment) order, 1975 which
popularly known as “The Presidential Order” in APTRANSCO, the break-up of
vacancies, Zone-wise, are as follows:
COMMUNITY WISE BREAK-UP OF VACANCIES:
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
ZONE
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - 2 - 1 - 1 - - - - - - 2 1 - 1 1(H.H) 1(V.H) 10
VSP
G.R 11 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 37
B.L - 2 - - - - - - - - - - 2 1 1 - - 1(V.H) 7
VJA G.R 11 6 2 - 3 1 - - 3 1 2 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 39
B.L - 5 1 - - 1 - - - - - - 2 2 - - - 1(V.H) 12
KDP
G.R 10 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 3 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 35
B.L - 4 - - - 1 - - 2 1 - - 1 1 - - 1(H.H) 1(V.H) 12
HYD
G.R 10 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 3 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 35
B.L - 3 1 - - - - - 1 1 1 - - - - - - 1(V.H) 8
WGL
G.R 11 7 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth. H)
- 38
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (TELECOM)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
Zones
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1(V.H) 1
VSP
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - 1 - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 3
VJA
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - - - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1(V.H) 2
KDP
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 2
HYD
G.R 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 2
WGL
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Asst. Engineer/
Electrical
Asst. Engineer/
Telecom
Asst. Engineer/
Civil
Name of the
Zone
B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total
Visakapatnam 10 37 47 1 - 1 - 2 2
Vijayawada 7 39 46 3 - 3 - 2 2
Kadapa 12 35 47 2 - 2 - 2 2
Hyderabad 12 35 47 2 1 3 1 2 3
Warangal 8 38 46 2 - 2 - 2 2
Total 49 184 233 10 1 11 1 10 11
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (CIVIL)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
Zone
s
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
VSP
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
VJA
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
KDP
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1
(VH)
1
HYD
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
WGL
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - Backlog; G.R - General recruitment; G – General; W - Women
X ZONAL/ LOCAL:
The select list will be drawn into two parts. The first part will comprise 40% of the
posts consisting of combined merit list of local as well as non-locals and the
remaining second part will comprise the balance 60% of the posts consisting of locals
only and the posts will be filled only following the rule of reservation.
a) The candidates will be selected and allotted to Zones/Sub Stations as per
their Rank in the merit list and as per zonal preferences for allotment of non-local
candidates against vacancies available. Selection shall be made on State Wide merit,
in respect of non-local candidates and allotment of Zones shall be made as per the
preference given by candidates against the actual vacancies.
b) While the Corporation calls for preference of candidates in respect of zones in
the application form, it is hereby clarified that the said preferences are only
indicative for being considered to the extent possible but not binding. Therefore, the
APTRANSCO has the power to assign a successful candidate to any of the notified
posts in the Zone in respect of non-local candidates, for which he/she is considered
to be qualified and eligible, subject to fulfilling the selection criteria. Mere claim of
preference for any zone for allotment against vacancy does not confer a right to
selection for that Zone in particular or any Zone in general.
RESERVATION TO LOCAL CANDIDATES:
Reservation to the local candidates is applicable as provided in the Rules and as
Amended from time to time in force on the date of notification. The candidates
claiming reservation as Local candidates should obtain the required Study certificates
(from class IV to X) or Residence Certificate in the proforma only for those
candidates who have not studied in any Educational Institutions as the case may be .
The relevant certificates may be got ready with authorized signature and kept with
the candidates as and when required.
DEFINITION OF LOCAL CANDIDATE:
(i) ‘’LOCAL CANDIDATE” means a candidate for direct recruitment to any post in
relation to that Local areas where he/she has studied in Educational
Institution(s) for not less than four consecutive academic years prior to and
including the year in which he/she appeared for S.S.C. or its equivalent
examination. If however, he/she has not studied in any Educational
Institution during the above four years period, it is enough if he/she has
resided in that area which is claimed as his /her Local area during the above
said period.
(ii) In case the candidate does not fall within the scope of the (i) above it will be
considered if he/she has studied for a period of not less than seven years
prior to and inclusive of the year in which he/she has studied for the
maximum period out of the said period of seven years AND where the period
of his/her study in two or more Local areas are equal such Local area where
he/she has studied last (in such Local area) will be taken for determining the
Local candidature. Similarly, if he/she has not studied during the above said
period in any Educational Institution(s) the place of residence during the
above period will be taken into consideration and Local candidature determine
with reference to the maximum period of residence or in the case of equal
period where he/she has resided last.
(iii) If the claim of Local candidature is based on study, the candidate is required
to produce a certificate from the Educational Institution(s) where he/she has
studied during the said 4/7 year period .If, however, it is based on residence,
a certificate should be obtained from an officer of the Revenue Department
not below the rank of a Tahsildhar in independent charge of a Mandal
(iv) If, however, a candidate has resided in more than one Mandal during the
relevant 4/7 years period but with in the same District or Zone as the case
may, be separate certificates from the Tahsildhars exercising jurisdiction have
to be obtained in respect of different areas.
NOTE:
A. Single certificate, whether of study or Residence would suffice for
enabling the candidate to apply as a “LOCAL CANDIDATE “.
B. Resident certificate will not be accepted, if a candidate has studied
in any Educational Institution up to S.S.C or equivalent
examination, such candidates have to produce study certificates
invariably.
C. Each of the following Zones comprises the Districts mentioned
against each Zone
Zones Districts
Visakhapatanam
(VSP)
Srikakukam, Vizianagaram
Visakapatnam. East & West Godavari
Vijayawada
(VJA)
Krishna, Guntur, Prakasham
& Nellore
Kadapa
(KDP)
Chitoor, Kadapa, Anantapur and
Kurnool.
Hyderabad
(HYD)
Hyderabad, Rangareddy,
Mahboobnagar, Medak and Nalgonda,
Warangal
(WGL)
Adilabad, Karimnagar, Warangal
Khammam and Nizamabad
Presidential Order is not applicable to Corporate Head Office.
ANNEXURE - I
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010
Electric Circuits: Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, star/ delta
transformation; electromagnetic induction; mutual induction; ac fundamentals;
harmonics, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis,
resonance, ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and
Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits, power
measurement .
Electrical Machines: Single phase transformer - equivalent circuit, phasor diagram,
tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers - connections, parallel
operation; auto-transformer; DC machines - types, windings, generator/ motor
characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors;
three phase induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and
speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines - performance,
regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and
applications .
Power Systems: Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models and
performance; underground cable, string insulators; corona; distribution systems; per-unit
quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power
factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles
of over-current, differential and distance protection; protection of alternator, transformer,
transmission lines neutral earthing, solid state relays and digital protection; circuit
breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion
Utilization & Control Systems: Principles of feedback; transfer function; block
diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Nyquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag,
lead and lead-lag compensation; Heating - resistance, induction, dielectric; Welding –
spot, seam and butt; Electric traction – speed-time curves, tractive effort;
Measurements: Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and
induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power
factor; digital voltmeters and multi-meters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Qmeters;
oscilloscopes;
Analog and Digital Electronics: Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers -
biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers;
Combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; A/D and D/A
converters; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.
Power Electronics and Drives: Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors,
triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs - static characteristics and principles of operation;
triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters - fully controlled and half
controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basic concepts of adjustable speed dc
and ac drives.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below. Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
Candidates have to bring their own pencils and erasers.
1.The armature of a d.c machine is made of
(A) Silicon steel (B) Wrought iron (C) Cast steel (D) Soft
iron
A
B
C D
2.The main drawbacks of d.c shunt generator is that
(A)Shunt circuit has high resistance (B) Generator voltage is
small (C) Terminal voltage drops considerably with load
(D) It is expensive
A B C
D
3.Transformers usually transfer electrical energy from primary
to secondary with change in
(A) Frequency (B) Voltage (C) Power (D) Time period
A B
C D
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Civil) 2010
1. Strength of Materials: Simple stresses and strains. Hooke’s law. Stress-strain curve
for mild steel, elastic constants, compound bars, temperature stresses, strain energy,
resilience, impact loading, SFD and BMD for simple cantilever and overhanging beams.
Centre of gravity and moment of inertia, bending and shear stress distributions. Theory
of pure torsion, helical spring, thin and thick cylinders, analysis of trusses by method of
joints and method of sections, combined direct and bending stresses, column and struts,
deflection of beams-double integration, moment area and conjugate beam methods.
2. Reinforced Concrete: Basic reinforcing materials, tests on cement and aggregates.
Structural concrete and its grades, workability tests and concrete mix design. Singly
and doubly reinforced beams, working stress design of rectangular and flanged beams
shear bond, development length and torsion in beams, one-way and two-way slabs,
axially and eccentrically loaded columns, isolated and combined footings. Basic
concepts of limit state design and its applications to the design of beams, slabs and
columns.
3.Steel Structures: Grades of steels, design of simple and compound beams, riveted and
welded joints, riveted and welded connections’-eccentric framed and seated, simple and
compound columns, slab and gusseted bases, grillage foundations, roof trusses, plastic
analysis – plastic bending of beams, shape factor, plastic analysis theorems, and
analysis of fixed, propped cantilever beams by static and kinematic methods.
4.Fluid Mechanics & Machinery : Fluid properties, pressure measurements, manometers,
forces on plane and curved surfaces, center of pressure, principle of buoyancy, stability
of floating and submerged bodies, metacentre, Kinematics of fluid flow, equation of
continuity. Euler’s and Bernoulli’s equations, Impulse-momentum, flow measuring
device s – orifices and mouth pieces, notches and weirs, flow through pipes, open
channel flow, impact of jets – stationery and moving vanes (flat and curved), radial
vanes, hydraulic turbines, pumps and machinery.
5.Soil Mechanics: Physical properties of soils, classification and identification,
permeability, capillarity, seepage, compaction, shear strength, Earth pressure, slope
stability.
Foundation Engineering : Stress distribution in soils, bearing capacity, settlement
analysis, pile foundation, Coffer dams, Caissons, Dewatering, Bracing for
excavations, site investigations, New mark charts, Machine foundation.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below.
Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall. Candidates have to bring
their own pencils and erasers.
1. The maximum value of Poisson’s ratio for any material is
( a) 1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.1
A
O
B


C
O
D
O
2. The modular ratio for M 20 grade concrete is
(a) 13.33 (b) 18.67 (c) 20 (d) 10
A
O
B


C
O
D
O
3.The maximum permissible deflection for a simply supported
steel beam of span 6.5 m is
(a) 5 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 30 mm
A
O
B
O
C


D
O
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Telecom) 2010
Network Analysis : Kirchoff’s Laws, RC, RL & RLC Circuits, Initial conditions,
Energy, Power, Instantaneous, max, average, RMS values of alternating currents, Phaser
representation, transient and steady state analysis, Total response. Network analysis
using Laplace Transforms, properties of Laplace transforms.
Fourier Series: Continuous and discrete Fourier Transforms, z-transforms. Applications
to signal Analysis.
Convolution. Network Theorems and Applications. Two Port Parameters, Series, Parallel
and Cascade connections of two port networks, Z, Y, ABCD Parameters, Network
Functions, Poles and Zeros. Driving point and Transfer Functions, Image Parameters,
Conventional LP, HP, BP, Band Stop Filters. Composite Filters, T,  & Lattice
Networks, Attenuators and Equalizers.
Electronic Devices & Circuits: PN Junction, PNP, NPN Transistors. Biasing, Tunnel
Diode, FET, UJT,SCR Characteristics, Various CB,CE,CC transistor Amplifiers –
Analysis & Performance. RC coupled and push pull amplifiers, compensation techniques,
Feedback, Negative feedback, oscillator Circuits, Phase Shift Oscillator.
Digital Circuits: Wave Shaping, multivibrators, Sweep Generators, Counters, logic
Gates and Circuits, Number Systems, Codes, Error Detection and Correction. Sequential
Circuits, Integrated Circuits OP Amps-Applications, IC Comparator Circuits, A/D, D/A
Converters.
Linear Control System: Open loop, Closed loop system, Signal Flow Graphs, Stability,
Routh – Hurwitz and Nyquist Criterion, Bode plots, Gain-phase Margin, Lead-Lag
compensation Techniques.
Transmission Lines & Antennas: Transmission line equation, Primary and Secondary
Parameters, Propagation constants, Open and Short Circuited Lines, Standing Waves,
Reflection Coefficient, VSWR, Line as Circuit element, Impedance Matching.
Maxwell’s equations and Field Theory: Various Laws & Theorems in
Electromagnetism, Plane Waves, Boundary Conditions, Concept of Radiation, Half wave
Dipole, Antenna Arrays, Communication Antennas – performance Characteristics.
Wave guides and Components: Reciprocal & non Reciprocal Wave guide components,
Couplers, Tees, Microwave Sources, Microwave Communication, Link Design.
Basics of Micro Processors & Micro Controllers: Architecture and Assemblers,
memory Devices.
Communication systems: Modulation, All types of Modulation techniques, SNR,
Analog & Digital Communication techniques, multiplexes, Demodulators, Radio
Receivers & Transmitters – Characteristics & Basics of Fibre Optics Communication and
Satellite Communication Systems.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below.
Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall. Candidates have to bring
their own pencils and erasers.
1.For reciprocal network, ABCD parameters are related as
(A ) A = D (B) B = C (C) AD – BC = 1 (D) AD + BC
= 1
A
O
B
O
C


D
O
2. For a short circuited transmission line, reflection coefficient is
equal to
(A) zero (B) infinity (C) -1 (D) +1
A
O
B
O
C


O

BSNL JTO

1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None

2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above

3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

4. In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole

concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)

5. When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms

6. A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies

7. The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming

8. A ‘trimmer’ capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) ‘Tunning up’ a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio

9. In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation

10. FET’s have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors

11. The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

12. AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode

13. When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current

14. The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25

15. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate

16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero

17. In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected

18. The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform

19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies

20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –

22. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –

23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the

Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W

24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W

25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –

26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –

28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket

29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now

doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
BSNL Recruitment / Placement Paper previous years for GE JTO Exam
30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector

at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction

31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr

32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none

34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.

36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy

38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero

39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth

40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none

41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code

42. The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12

43. The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200

44. The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points ‘r’
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2

45. In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr

46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is

47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other

components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.

48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group

49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two

steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2

50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-

51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.

52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above

53 The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA

54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor

55. Crossover distortion occurs in — amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB

56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to

—dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2

57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000

58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The

upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz

59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n

60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999

61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-

62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101

63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns

64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100

65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar

66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.

67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode

68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800

69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Question paper previous years exam last. 2007 2008
70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –
a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.

71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown

in figure
72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at – 2. The gain

margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB

74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48

75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis

76. Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and

the satellite.

77 The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero

78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power

80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker

81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse

82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b

83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite

84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave

85. Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift

86. In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode

87. PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter

88. A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect

89. LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased

90. Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading

91. 8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None

92. The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7

93. In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None

94. A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.

95. RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above

96. A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit

97. On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do

98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable

99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
BSNL Recruitment Question Paper for GE JTO free. BSNL Placement Examination Paper previous years 2006 2007 2008 2009 sample

paper. solutions / answer keys coming soon!
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic

101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None

102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary ‘may’ indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request

103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above

104. The manager is usually strict but in Madhav’s case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient

105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession

106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling

107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these

108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu

109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these

110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma

111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha

112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open

113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan

114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE

115. Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

116. The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao

117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members

118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra

119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha

120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
d) 22 yards