Wednesday, December 9, 2009

BSNL JTO

1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None

2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above

3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

4. In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole

concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)

5. When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms

6. A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies

7. The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming

8. A ‘trimmer’ capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) ‘Tunning up’ a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio

9. In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation

10. FET’s have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors

11. The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

12. AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode

13. When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current

14. The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25

15. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate

16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero

17. In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected

18. The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform

19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies

20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –

22. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –

23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the

Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W

24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W

25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –

26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –

28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket

29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now

doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
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30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector

at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction

31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr

32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none

34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.

36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy

38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero

39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth

40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none

41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code

42. The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12

43. The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200

44. The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points ‘r’
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2

45. In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr

46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is

47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other

components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.

48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group

49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two

steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2

50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-

51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.

52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above

53 The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA

54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor

55. Crossover distortion occurs in — amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB

56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to

—dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2

57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000

58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The

upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz

59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n

60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999

61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-

62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101

63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns

64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100

65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar

66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.

67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode

68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800

69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
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70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –
a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.

71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown

in figure
72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at – 2. The gain

margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB

74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48

75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis

76. Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and

the satellite.

77 The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero

78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power

80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker

81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse

82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b

83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite

84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave

85. Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift

86. In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode

87. PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter

88. A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect

89. LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased

90. Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading

91. 8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None

92. The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7

93. In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None

94. A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.

95. RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above

96. A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit

97. On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do

98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable

99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
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100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic

101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None

102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary ‘may’ indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request

103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above

104. The manager is usually strict but in Madhav’s case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient

105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession

106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling

107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these

108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu

109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these

110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma

111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha

112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open

113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan

114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE

115. Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

116. The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao

117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members

118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra

119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha

120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
d) 22 yards

BSNL JTO

1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency series circuit is-
a.) Inductive
b.) Capacitive
c. )Resistive
d.)None
2. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (Ohm –1 m-1) -
a.) 107
b. )105
c. )10-4
d. )10-6
3. The output of a piezoelectric crystal has-
a. )Low amplitude and low impedance
b. )High amplitude and high impedance
c. )Low amplitude and high impedance
d.)High amplitude and low impedance
4. The time constant associated with the capacitor charging in the circuit shown in the given figure is –
a. )6ms
b. )10ms
c. )15ms
d.) 25ms
5. The Q factor of an inductor would be higher if it is made of –
a.) Thinner wire
b.) Longer wire
c.) Shorter wire
d.) Thicker wire
6. A cavity resonator can be represented by –
a.) An LC circuit
b.) An LCR circuit
c.) A lossy inductor
d.) A lossy capacitor
7. Air gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents –
a.) Core saturation
b). Hysterisis loss
c.) Flux leakage
d.) Transformer action
8. Between the plates of an air capacitor if a glass slab is slipped without moving the plate then -
a.) Its capacitance is decreased
b.) Its capacitance is increased
c.) Its capacitance is hardly affected
d. )Capacitor is discharged
9. For current to flow, a circuit must be –
a.) Isolated
b). Insulated
c.) Complete
d.) Protected
10. Human ear can detect sound intensities of the order of –
a.) 10-20 w/m2
b). 10-13 w/m2
c.) 10-6 w/m2
d.) 10-3 w/m2
11. A FET operates on –
a). Majority carriers only
b). Minority carriers only
c). Positively charged ions only
d.) None
12. An SCR can conduct for a full half cycle or any part of it –
a. )and continue conduction for other half cycle
b.) but blocks the conduction for other half cycle
c.) nothing can be said
d.) none
13. In CRT aquadag carries -
a. )aqueous solution of graphite
b. )sweep voltage
c. )secondary emission electrons
d.) none of the above

14. From the following circuit, in order to obtain a 12-v stabilized supply the input to the terminals A and B
should be -
a.)less than 12v with terminal A positive with respect to terminal B
b. )greater than 12v with B positive with respect to A
c. )less than 12v with A negative with respect to B
d. )greater than 12v with A positive with respect to B
15. When the value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 Na then the value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180c would be –
a. )8mA
b. )160 hA
c. )1mA
d. )7.84mA
16. MOSFET can operate in –
a. )Depletion mode
b. )Enhancement mode
c. )Depletion-only mode
d. )Both a & b
17. For a circuit design the very factor of an SCR, which is to be taken into account is –
a.)
d.) None

18. The functions of an oxide layer in an IC device is to –
a.) mask against diffusion or ion implant
b.) insulate the surface electrically
c.) produce a chemically stable protective layer
d.) all the above
19. One of the following bipolar transistors which has the highest current gain bandwidth product for similar geometry is –
a.) NPN germanium transistor
b.) NPN silicon transistor
c.) PNP germanium transistor
d. )PNP silicon transistor.
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20. With the increasing temperature, the electrical conductivity would –
a.) Increase in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
b.) Increase in metals but decrease in intrinsic semiconductors.
c. )Decrease in metals but increase in intrinsic semiconductors.
d. )Decrease in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
21. For the following circuit, the current X is 3A then the power delivered by the dependent current source D is –
a.) 50 watts
b) 50 watts
c. )1500 watts
d. )15000 watts
22. The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will be –
a.) 0.2A
b.) 0.4A
c.) 0.6A
d.) 0.8A

23. In the network shown in the given fig. the capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0 before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In the steady state-
a.)C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages
b.) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs
c. )C1 and C2 are discharged fully
d. ) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0
24. The equivalent circuit of a wire-wound resistor can be represented as –

25. For the fig. shown the fundamental cutset for the branch 12 is –
a. )2, 1, 5
b. )2, 6, 7, 8
c. )2, 1, 3, 4,5
d. )2, 3, 4

26. Ideally, attenuator pads should not change –
a. )voltage level
b.) impedance level
c.) power level
d.) voltage, power or impedance level
27. When the two networks are cascaded through an ideal Buffer and if tr1 and tr2 are the rise times of the two networks, then the overall delay of the two networks together will be –

28. For the network shown in the following fig. one of the following theorems which can be conveniently used to calculate the power consumed by the 10W resistor is –
a. )Thevenin’s theorem
b.) Maximum power transfer theorem
c.) Millman’s theorem
d.) Superposition theorem
29 The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of –
a. )KVL
b.) KCL
c.) Ohm’s law
d.) Both b and c
30. When the driving point impedance of a network at a frequency of 1Hz is then the impedance can be realised as –
31. For a lossless line-
1. Series resistance is zero 2. Shunt conductance is zero
3. Shunt conductance is infinite 4. Series resistance is infinite
a. ) 1 & 2
b. )2 & 3
c. ) 2 & 4
d.)3 & 4
32. When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit then-
a.) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b) Voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) Voltage across both R and C are square
d. )Voltage across both R and C are not square
33. When an A.M. broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kw power when the modulation percentage is 60 then the power of the carrier is-
a. ) 5.00 kw
b.) 7.69 kw
c.) 8.47 kw
d.) 9.17 kw
34. The main components of atmosphere responsible for absorption of em waves are -
a. ) Nitrogen and Oxygen
b. )Nitrogen and hydrogen
c.) Oxygen and water vapour
d. )Nitrogen and water vapour
35. The effective height of a linear antenna of length ‘l’ is say ‘x’ when the current distribution along it’s length is uniform and say, it is ‘y’ when the current distribution is sinusoidal then x/y is equal to -
a.) 2
b.) 1
c. ) 4/ p
d.) p/4
36. In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity -
a.) Increases with increasing frequency
b.)Decreases with increasing frequency
c. )Is independent of frequency
d.)Will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range

37. For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency of (fc is the cut–off frequency )-
a.) 3fc
*

38. When a transmission line having 50 impedance is terminated in a load of ( 40 + j30) W then the VSWR is –
a.)j 0.033
b.)0.8 + j 0.6
c.) 1
d.)2
39. The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propogation at-
a.)High frequencies
b.)Ultra-high frequencies
c. Microwave frequencies
d.)Optical frequencies
40. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by-
a. )100%
b. )150 %
c. )50%
d.) 0%
41. Reluctances in series are –
a. )Subtractive
b.) Additive
c.) Multiplicative
d.) None.
42. When the meters X and Y requires 40 mA and 50 mA respectively for full scale deflection then –
a. )X is more sensitive
b.) Y is more sensitive
c. )both are equally sensitive
d.) not possible to determine from the given data.
43. In the context of ac bridge measurement the term “Wagner Ground” means –
a.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray magnetic effects.
b.) any unwanted and unintended ground connection.
c.) a large metal plate buried in the ground and connected to one corner of the bridge.
d.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray capacitance effects.
44. The gating and counting circuits of a digital counter –
a. )cannot handle MHz signals
b.) cannot handle GHz signals
c. )can handle GHz signals
d.) none.
45. De- sauty bridge is more widely used because of –
a. )simplicity
b. )perfect balance for imperfect capacitors
c. )perfect balance for air capacitors
d.) maximum sensitivity.
46. A schottky diode clamp is used along with a switching BJT for –
a. )reducing the power dissipation.
b. )reducing the switching time
c. )increasing the value of b
d.) reducing the base current.
47. The phenomenon of creeping occurs in –
a. )Energy meters
b.) Ammeters
c. )Wattmeter
d. )Voltmeters
48. A permanent magnet moving coil measures the –
a. )true rms value
b.) dc value
c.) peak value
d. )rms plus dc value
49. The D`Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by adding to it a-
a. )thermocouple
b.) rectifier
c.) chopper
d. )transducer
50. Which one of the following detectors is generally used in ac bridges for audio frequency range ?
a. )Ac voltmeter
b. )CRO
c. )Headphones
d.) Vibration galvanometer.
51. In single phase circuit capacitor used for power factor correction decreases –
a.) The power factor
b.) The line current
c.) Both a and b
d.) The line current and increases power factor
52. In the given figure X the balanced bridge should be
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self-inductance having resistance
b. )A capacitance
c. )A non-Inductive resistance
d. )An inductance and a capacitance in parallel
53. SiO2 layer in an integrated circuit provides –
a. )Electrical connection to external circuit
b.) Physical strength
c. )Isolation
d. )Conducting path
54. For an SCR with turn on time of 5 microsecond, an ideal trigger pulse should have-
a. )short rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
b. )vlong rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
c. )short rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
d.)long rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
55. In a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum a c voltage is-
a) 0.955
b. )0.827
c.) 1.654
d. )1.169
56. In multiple pulse modulation used in PWN inverters, the amplitude and frequency for triangular carrier and square reference signals are respectively 4V, 6 KH2 and 1V, 1KH2. The number of pulses per half cycle and pulse width is respectively-.
a. )6, 900
b. )3, 450
c. )4, 600
d.) 3, 400
57. A four quadrant operation requires-
a. )two full converters in series.
b.) two full converters connected back to back.
c.) two full converters connected in parallel.
d.) two semi converters connected back to back
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

58. In voltage source inverters-
a. )load voltage waveform o depends on load impedance z, where as load current waveform io does not depend on z,
b. )Both o and io depend on z,
c.) o does not depend on z where as depends on z
d. )both o and do not depend on z
59. For an RC driving – point impedance function, the poles and zeros-
a. )should alternate on real axis
b.) should alternate only on the negative real axis
c.) should alternate on the imaginary axis
d.) can lie anywhere on the left half place.
60. The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate – cathode circuit and a zener diode across gate cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate circuit from-
a.) over voltages, over currents.
b. )over currents over voltages.
c. )over currents, noise signals
d. )noise signals, over voltages.
61. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a.)A resonant circuit is used as load
b.) The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c. ) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive
d. )None of the above
62. The circuit diagram shown in the figure consist of transistor is -
a. ) Parallel connection
b.) Cascode connection
c. ) Darlington connection
d. )Cascade connection
63. Increase of current in one transistor in a direct coupled circuit -
a. ) Causes an increase in current in other transistors of the circuit
b. )Causes a decrease in current in other transistor
c. )Does not affect the currents of other transistors connected in the circuit
d. )May either increase or decrease currents of other transistors connected in the circuit.
64. In a PNP transistor the charge carriers in the base region which play an important role in the operation of the transistor are-
a. ) The majority carriers
b.) The minority carriers
c. ) Nothing can be said
d. )None of the above
65. Voltage gain in a CC amplifier is-
a. )Cannot exceed unity
b. )Is always constant
c. ) Is dependent on input signal
d. )Depends on output impedance
66. Random-access-memory means –
a. )memory in a random fashion
b. )memory in a zigzag fashion
c. )memory in a circular fashion
d. )memory in a square fashion
67. BCD code is –
a. )an alphanumeric code
b. )a binary code
c .) the same thing as binary numbers
d. )non-weighed
68. The transfer function of a system is . The phase swift at w = 0 and w = a will be -
a.) 900 and –00
b. )-900 and 900
c. )-1800 and 1800
d. )None of the above
69. Number of resolutions in a 8 bit D/A converter is –
a. )8 bit
b.) 4 bit
c. )6 bit
d.) 10 bit
70. A bistable multivibrator is used as a –
a.) Free running multivibrator
b.) Frequency multiplier
c.) Frequency divider
d. )Wave shaper
71. The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at w = o and w = will be –
a. )900 and -00
b. )–900 and 900
c. )–1800 and 1800
d. )none of the above.
72. A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback control system is equal to The unit step response of this system starting from rest will have its maximum value at a time equal to –
a. )0 sec
b. )0.56 sec
c. )5.6 sec
d.) infinity.

73. To obtain the output position in a position control system, which one of the following transducers is used-
a.) Strain Gauge
b.) Load cell
c. )Synchro
d.) Thermistor

74. The maximum resonance peak for the second order transfer function T(S) = will be –
a. )4
b. )4/3
c. )2

75. Considering control system in the given fig .
For slight variation in G, the ratio of open loop sensitivity to closed pool
sensitivity will be given by-
a.) 1: (1+GH)
b.) 1 : (1+GH)-1
c. )1 : (1-GH)
d. )1 : (1-GH)-1
76 The diversity system in Troposcatter links is made use of to-
a. )Increase the bandwidth
b.) Prevent noise effects
c.) Increase the directivity of the antenna.
d.) Detect signal in the presence of fading.
77. )Mark out wrong statement regarding compandor-
a.) It compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to normal again after demodulation.
b.) It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c.) For weaker signals, it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error.
d. )Weaker signals, transverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is reduced –
78. Among other equipment a sub marine cable repeater contains –
a.) A dc power supply and regulator
b. )Filters for the two directions of transmission
c.) Multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment
d.) Pilot inject and pilot extract equipment
79. In a communication system noice is most likely to affect the signal-
a.) At the transmitter
b.) In the channel
c.) In the information source
d.) At the destination
80. The given circuit is a –
a.) Monostable multivibrator
b.) Frequency division circuit
c.) Miller sweeps circuit
d.) Bootstrap sweep circuit
81. In a plane transverse electromagnetic wave-
a.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is O.
b.)Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 900
c.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 1800
d.) None of above.
82. Directional coupler is a function of-
a.) Two port wave-guide
b.) Four port wove guide
c. )Single port wave-guide
d.) Size port wave-guide.
83. Isolators are used to couple generator and load because –
a.) It increases power of signal
b.) To match any load with generator
c. )To get phase shifted o/p
d.) To differentiate load & generator
84. In travelling wave tube for getting amplified output -
a. )Electron beam travels and RF field remains stationary
b.) Both electron beam and RF field travels in same direction
c. )Both electron beam and RF field remains stationary
d.) RF field travels and electron beam remains stationary

85. Crystal diode works on principle of –
a. )Negative resistance
b. )Positive resistance
c. )Square low
d.) Linear impedance
86. In gunn effect oscillator which mode having lowest operating frequency –
a. )Domain mode
b. )Delayed domain mode
c. )Quenched domain mode
d. )LSA mode
87. In Reflex klystron maximum energy transferred to gap by electrons-
a. )eR
b. )ee
c. )el
d. )eR , ee, el
88. The radio waves get absorbed by atmosphere depends –
a.) Their distance from transmitter is long
b.) Wave power is weak
c. )Improper polarization of wave
d.) Frequency of waves
89. 8085 mP has no of sets of communication lines-
a. )2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d. ) None
90. No. of o/p ports in peripheral mopped I/p are up to-
a.)32
b.) 64
c. ) 128
d.) 256
91. Is two byte instruction-
a.) MOV A, B
b.) ANA B
c.) MV I B, 92 H
d.) LHLD 2050 H
92. Banch instructions-
a. ) only uses flogs setting to make decision.
b. )only sets flogs according to results.
c. ) uses flogs settings as well as sets flogs setting
d. )nighteruse flog settings not set flogs.
93. What will be the time delay achieved from following loop-
Loop DCX B 6
MOV A, C, 4
ORA B 4
JNZ Loop 10
system clock freg. = 2 MHz.
a. ) 10 m s
b.)12 m s
c.) 14 m s
d. 16 m s
94. After execution of pop statement-
a. ) Stack pointer decremented by 2
b.) Stack pointer incremented by 2
c.) Stack pointer decremented by 1
d. )Stack pointer incremented by 1
95. Labels are used as an alternative for-
a.) Data
b.) Register name
c.) Memory address
d) Stack pointer
96. Microprogramming is a technique-
a) For programming the microprocessor
b.) For writing small programs efficiently
c. )For programming the control steps of computer
d.) For programming o/p / i/p
97. 00110010 – 01000101 =?
a.) 00010011
b. )11101101
c. )11100011
d. )11100100
98. When an array is possed as an argument to a function what exactly gets possed-
a.) Address of the array
b. )Values of elements of array
c.) Number of elements of array
d. )Address of the first element of the array
99. A write cycle time means-
a.) Minimum length of write pulse
b.) Minimum amount of time for which data must be valid before write pulse end
c.) Minimum time required between successive write operation
d.) Minimum time for which data must be valid after write pulse ends
BSNL Recruitment / Placement Paper previous years 2007 2008 free download here. Examination question papers free here..

100. If three i/p of a gate are 1, 0, 1 then output is O the gate must be-
a.) NOT
b.) AND
c.) OR
d. )NAND.
101. Inverting amplifier configuration using operational amplifier is –

102. Which logic family is most faster-
a.) ECL
b.) DCTL
c.) RTL
d) TTL
103. For getting positive o/p from two i/p OR gate for positive logic-
a.) both i/p must be positive
b.) both i/p must be negative
c.) any one of i/p must be positive
d.) undefined condition
104. Supercilious is –
a. )Harighty
b.) High brow
c.) Angry
d.) Inane.
105. Give the synonym of ‘moribund’-
a.) Undertaking
b.) Burial
c.) Leather bound
d.) Dying
106. The convention was to end on May 13 with a month long break in between. What do the two prepositions indicate?
a.) Duration
b.) Time
c) Direction
d.) Position
107. According to the writer what influences our dreams-
a. )inner censorships
b.) the stories
c. )the tales
d) none.
108. Vaunted is –
a.) Unvanquished
b.) Fell.
c.)Belittled
d.) Exacting.
109. The sun rays falls vertically on -
a.) Tropics
b.) Doldrums
c.) Poles
d.) Equator
110. Trimurti is associated with -
a.) Ellora
b.) Ajanta
c.) Khajuraho
d.) Elephant caves
111. In which year did the congress adopt “Poorna Swaraj” or complete independence as its goal?
a.) 1930
b.) 1929
c.) 1928
d.) 1942
112. Director of CBI-
a.) D.C Sharma
b.) A. M Shrivastava
c.) P.C Sharma
d.) P.C Dole
113. Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to -
a.) P. gopichand
b.) P. T Usha
c.) Sachin Tendulkar
d.) Gurpreet Singh
114. During which time is vist to Mecca treated as Haj?
a.) Id-Ul-Fitr
b) Id-ul-Zuha
c. )Milad-un-Nabi
d.) Any time
115. Of the 109 known metals, how many occur in nature and how many are produced synthetically in particle accelerators!
a.) 79 and 10
b.) 80 and 29
c. )95 and 14
d.) None can be produced synthetically
116. Earth’s average speed per second around the sun is -
a.) 30 km
b. ) 32 km
c.) 34 km
d.) 35 km
117. Governor of Reserve Bank of India is -
a.) Bimal Jalan
b.) C. Ranga Rajan
c. )Rana Malhotra
d. )S. Venkata Ramanan
118. The first pope to enter a mosque in Damascus syria is -
a )Pope John Paul II
b.) Pope John Paul I
c.) Pope John Paul III
d. )Pope John Paul V
119. Uranium is found in the state of -
a.) Orissa
b.) A. P
c.) Karnataka
d. )Bihar
120. Nuclear Power plant in Pakistan is located at-
a. )Karachi
b.) Peshawar
c. )Ellipse
d.) Paraboloid

BSNL JTO

1. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-
a) Triangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Sinusoidal
d) Rectangular

2. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None

3. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel

5. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
6. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

7. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET

8. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

9. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

10. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps

11. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias

12. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6

13. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats

14. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC

15. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none

16. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b

17. A diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width

18. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
19. When the two networks shown in fig. are equivalent with respect to the terminals 1 and 2 at all frequencies then the values of CA, LB, LC and CC will be –

a) 0.5, 0.33, 6, 0.166
b) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.66
c) 0.5, 3, 3, 2
d) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.166
BSNL Placement Question Paper
20. The transmission parameter of the network C when the transmission parameter of the network A and B are and respectively are -
21. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem

22. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

23. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1

24. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position

25. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network

26. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C

27. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
d) h12

28. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

29. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz

30. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding

31. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
32. One of the following statements which is not true for a strip line compared to a waveguide is –
a) It can be directly connected to semiconductor microwave devices
b) It is much smaller in size
c) It has a smaller bandwidth
d) Losses are less

33. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W

34. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

35. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560

36. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

37. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron

38. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero

39. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these

40. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it’s internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

41. The aperture time of an A to D converter is given by -

42. A memoryless system is –
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none

43. An air capacitor is a –
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device

44. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor

45. Pirani gauge is used to measure –
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow

46. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters

47. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state

48. Q factor of a coil in Maxwell bridge is obtained as –

49. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
BSNL Recruitment and Placement Paper JTO
50. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig

51. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back

52. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P

53. For critical damping of the resonant circuit consisting of Rd, L, C in series is –
d) none of the above

54. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d) an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

55. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature

56. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages

57. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

58. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance

59. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz

60. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses
61. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above

62. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

63. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above

64. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc

65. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
(y denotes don’t care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y

66. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance

67. The 2’s complement of 10002 is –
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001

68. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch

69. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

70. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency

71. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) –200 dB/decade
b) –240 dB/decade
c) –230 dB/decade
d) –320 dB/decade
72. In a unity feed back control system the open loop transfer function is
The closed loop transfer unit will have pole at –
a) –2, -2
b) –2, -1
c) –2, +j1,-j1
d) –2, 2
73. In a compensating network the transfer function is of the form If this is a phase log network the value of should be –
a) exactly equal to 0
b) between 0 and 1
c) exactly equal to 1
d) greater than 1

74. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing
3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

75. A typical control system is shown.
Assuming the steady state errors is given by
*
76. The centre and radius of M of circles are given respectively by

77. The open –loop transfer function for a unity feedback system is –
what is the steady state error if the input is,
r(t) = (2 + 3t + 4t2) u(t)
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
78. The sensitivity SGM of a system with the transfer function is given by

79. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs

80. Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above

81. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF

82. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration

83. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two – tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation

84. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation

85. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
c) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen

86. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current

87. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz –100 GHz
c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz

88. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

89. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None

90. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600

91. The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise

92. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device

93. Scattering matrix equation for directional coupler is –
a)
b)
c)
d)

94. Noise figure is calculated as –
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

95. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
96. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) –5, 1
b) –2.5, 1
c) –5,0-5
d) –5, 2

97. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80

98. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain

99. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
BSNL JTO Placement Papers Questions – Solutions Soon!
100. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace

101. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt

102. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills

103. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet

104. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither

105. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity

106. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
d) None of these

107. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President’s Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned

108. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner

109. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003

110. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW

111. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869

112. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership

113. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10

114. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian

115. India’s first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome

116. Name the author of the famous book “Politics”-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them

117. “Guernica” is Picasso’s painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution

118. The object of the Supreme Court’s Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament’s amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these

119. Which country in July ‘99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China

120. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland

BSNL JTO

1. Reactive current through the capacitive load produces -
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Supermagnetic field
d) None

2. One of the following which gives piero-electric effect is -
a) Mu metal
b) PVDF
c) Sapphire
d) Ferrites

3. PZT piezo- electric materials have -
a) Higher curie temperature
b) Lower curie temperature
c) Absolute temperature
d) None

4. The residual resistivity of a binary alloy at OK is -
a) The sum of the residual resistivities of the component metals
b) The difference of the residual resistivities of the component metals.
c) The product of the residual resistivities of the component metals
d) Dependent on the concentration of the minor component in the alloy

5. In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided mainly because they -
a) Are always associated with some resistance
b) Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturisation
c) Are non-linear in nature
d) Saturate quickly

6. The depletion layer across a p-n junction lies -
a) mostly in the p-region
b) mostly in the n-region
c) equally to both p and n region
d) entirely in the p-region

7. The voltage induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field is -
a) pulsating dc
b) dc
c) rectified ac
d) ac

8. One of the following types of capacitor which is polarized is -
a) Electrolytic
b) Ceramic
c) Paper
d) Mylar

9. Electric shock is-
a) Always fatal
b) Never fatal
c) Sometimes fatal
d) Always disfiguring

10. A typical value of filter capacitor for 50 Hz ripple is -
a) 16mF
b) 10F
c) 10mF
d) None

11. A telephone relay armature is made of material with -
a) High electrical conductivity
b) Low electrical conductivity
c) Negligible conductivity
d) None

12. Larger the value of filter capacitor -
a) Larger is the peak-peak value of ripple voltage
b) Larger is the peak current in the rectifying diode
c) Longer is the time that current pulse flows through the diode
d) Smaller is the dc voltage across the load

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by -
a) Thermally generated electrons and holes
b) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c) Migration of minority carriers across the junction
d) Flow of drift current

14. The polarity of VGS for E-only MOSFET is -
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) depends on P or N channel
BSNL JTO Recruitment Question Paper previous years 2007 2008
15. The following which will serve as a donor impurity in silicon -
a) Boron
b) Indium
c) Germanium
d) Antimony

16. When bias applied to a vari-cap diode is increased, its capacitance -
a) is decreased
b) is increased
c) remains constant
d) first increases and then decreases.

17. In case of a bipolar transistor a is -
a) positive and greater than 1
b) positive and less than 1
c) negative and greater than 1
d) negative and less than 1

18. A BJT is -
a) not very sensitive to radiations
b) very sensitive to radiations.
c) independent of radiations
d) none

19. An SCR may be considered to be -
a) 2 diodes
b) 3 diodes
c) 4 diodes
d) 5 diodes

20. For a BJT, under the saturation condition -
a) IC = bIB
b) IC > bIB
c) IC is independent of all other parameters
d) IC < bIB

21. In modern MOSFET’s the material used for the gate is -
a) High purity silicon
b) High purity silica
c) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon
d) Epitaxial grown silicon

22. Find the Norton’s equivalent of the circuit given below -
23. When the source in the circuit shown is a sinusoidal source then the input voltage is -
a) 10V
b) 5V
c) 27V
d) 24V

24. The time constant of the network shown in the given figure is given by -

25. The voltage transfer ratio of two-port networks connected in cascade may be conveniently obtained from the -
a) product of the individual ABCD matrices of the two networks
b) product of voltage transfer ratios of the two individual networks
c) sum of the Z- matrices of the two networks
d) sum of the h – matrices of the two networks

26. When a network has response with time as shown in fig. then which one of the following diagrams represents the location

of the poles of this network ?

27. For the network shown in the given fig. the ratio is -

28. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 50mv in an experiment. The loss in decibels is -
a) –40dB
b) –6dB
c) –55dB
d) –60dB

29. When the network has 10 nodes and 17 branches then the number of different node pair voltages would be -
a) 7
b) 9
c) 10
d) 45

30. The circuit shown in the following fig. will act as an ideal current source with respect to terminals A and B when

frequency is -
a) zero
b) 1rad/s
c) 4rad/s
d) 16rad/s

31.When a short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1MHz and the effective height of the antenna is 30 m then

the calculated value of the radiation resistance is -
a) 1.58 W
b) 158 W
c) 15.8 W
d) None of these

32. Shannon’s law relates -
a) antenna gain to bandwidth
b) frequency to antenna gain
c) antenna gain to transmission losses
d) information carrying capacity to S/N ratio

33. One of the following modes which has the characteristic of attenceation becoming less as the frequency is increased and

is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is -
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

34.For a transmission line, the propogation constant, for a TEM wave travelling in it is given by (Where the symbols have the

usual meanings ) -
a) [ (R+jwL) (G+jwc)]
b) [ R+jwL) (G+jwc)] ½
c) [ (R-jwL) (G + jwc) ] ½
d) [(R-jwL) ( G+jw2c)]1/3

35. The advantages of wave guides over co-axial lines would include which of the following features-
1. Easier to use 2. lower power losses
3. Higher operating frequencies possible
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3

36. When a 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated in two resistive loads R1 and R2 such that the standing pattern in

the two cases have the same SWR , then the values of R1 and R2 (in ohms) should be -
a) 250 and 200 respectively
b) 225 and 25 respectively
c) 100 and 150 respectively
d) 50 and 125 respectively

37. The degenerate modes in a wave guide are characterized by -
a) Same cut off frequencies but different field distribution
b) Same cut off frequencies and same field distributions
c) Different cut off frequencies but same field distributions
d) Different cut off frequencies and different field distributions

38.A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a dielectric-dielectric boundary with Er1=2 and Er2=1, the angle of incidence for total

reflection is -
a) 30 0
b) 60 0
c) 45 0
d) 90 0

39. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to the dipole is a -
a) Null
b) Circle
c) Figure of eight
d) None of the above
BSNL JTO Recruitment Placement Question Paper free donwload previous years 2007 2008
40. Permeance is the -
a) square of reluctance
b) reluctance
c) reciprocal of the reluctance
d) cube of the reluctance.

41. One of the following which is an active transducer is -
a) Photoelectric
b) Photovoltaic
c) Photo-conductive
d) Photo emission

42. The wein bridge uses only -
a) Inductors
b) Capacitors
c) Resistors
d) Capacitors and Resistors.

43. The greater the value of Q -
a) higher will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.
b) smaller will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.
c) nothing can be said)
d) none.

44. The most serious source of error in a) c) bridge measurement is -
a) eddy currents
b) leakage currents
c) residual imperfectness
d) stray fields.

45. Moving iron instruments -
a) have a linear scale
b) do not have a linear scale
c) both a and b)
d) none.

46. If accuracy is the main consideration, which one of the following voltmeters should one select -
a) 100 v ; 2 mA
b) 100 v ; 100 ohm/volt
c) 100 v ; 1mA
d) 10,000 v ; 10 mA

47. In dc tacho generators used for measurement of speed of a shaft, frequent calibration has to be done because -
a) the contacts wear off
b) the strength of permanent magnet decreases with age
c) the armature current produces heating effect
d) there is back emf.

48. Ideal transformer cannot be described by -
a) h parameters
b) ABCD parameters
c) G parameters
d) parameters

49. Consider the following statements -
A3- phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3 phase unbalanced load) Power supplied to this load can be measured using
1. Two wattmeters
2. One wattmeter
3. Three wattmeters
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 alone

50. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to -
a) Produce a constant voltage
b) Provide temperature compensation
c) Provide a constant current
d) Measure average pH value

51. Match the column A (Devices) with column B (Characteristics) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the column -
Column A Column B
A) BJT 1. Voltage controlled negative resistance
B) MOSFET 2. High current gain
C) Tunnel diode 3. Voltage regulation
D) Zener diode 4. High input impedance
Codes :
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 1 3 2 4

52. A thyristor during forward blocking state is associated with.-
a) large current , low voltage.
b) low current , large voltage.
c) medium current , large voltage
d) low current, medium voltage.

53. In controlled rectifiers, the nature of load current i.e. whether load current is continuous or discontinuous -
a) does not depend on type of load and firing angle delay
b) depends both on the type of load and firing angle delay
c) depends only on the type of load)
d) depends only on the firing angle delay.

54. A single phase voltage controller feeds power to a resistance of 10 W . The source voltage is 200 V rms. For a firing

angle of 900 , the rms value of thyristor current in amperes is -
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 5

55. In the performance of single phase and three phase full converters the effect of source inductance is to
a) reduce the ripples in the load current -
b) make discontinuous current as continuous
c) reduce the output voltage
d) increase the load voltage.

56. The cycloconverters (CCs) require natural or forced commutation as under -
a) natural commutation in both step up and step down CCs
b) forced commutation in both step up and step down CCs
c) forced commutation in step up CCs
d) forced commutation in step down CCs

57. Power transistors are more commonly of -
a) silicon npn type.
b) silicon pnp type.
c) silicon nnp type.
d) silicon npp type.

58. C is a -
a)Middle level language
b) High level language
c) Low level language
d) None of above

59. What will be output of program
main ( )
{ int i ;
print f (”Enter value of i”);
scant (”%d”, & i);
if ( i = 5 )
print f (”you entered 5″);
else
print f (”you entered %d”, i ); }
if user entered 100 then
a) 5
b) 100
c) 1005
d) None

60. (7F)16 + (BA)16 = (?)16-
a) 481
b) 139
c) –481
d) –139

61. Two’s complement of 3 bit nonzero linory number is some or original number is all bits accepts-
a) MSB are zeros
b) LSB are zeros
c) MSB are ones
d) LSB are ones.

62. The schematic circuits of RTL NOR gate is-






63. Transistors with high frequency have -
a) Thick base
b) Thin base
c) Some other feature
d) None of the above

64. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of -
a) Average waiting time
b) Grade of service
c) Peak waiting time
d) Erlangs

65. In a Hartley oscillator -
a) Necessary phase relation is obtained by connecting grid and plate electrodes to the opposite ends of the tuned circuit.
b) The mutual inductance must have the appropriate polarity.
c) Both grid circuit and plate tuned circuit offer inductive reactance
d) None of the above

66.The condenser C is charged in a bootstrap sweep generator -
a) Linearly but the discharge is non linear
b) Non linearly but the discharge is linear
c) Linearly and the discharge is linear
d) Non linearly and the discharge is non linear

67.In an audio amplifier audio signals become garbled and hence difficult to understand when an ac input current is large

enough to drive the output to -
a) saturation only
b) Cut off only
c) Either saturation or cut off
d) A value off the load line

68. Five 1 bit registers are referred as -
a) Flags
b) Slags
c) Tags
d) None of the above

69. Next binary number after 0,1, 10, 11 is -
a) 12
b) 101
c) 100
d) 110

70. Identify coincidence logic circuit in the following –
a) b)
c) d)
71. The output analog voltage Vo is given by -
72. If an inverter is placed at the input to an SR flip flop, the result is -
a) T flip flop
b) D flip flop
c) JK flip flop
d) BCD decade counter

73. See the Root locus diagram of a system and the following statements :-
1. The open loop system is a second order system.
2. The system is over damped for
3. The system is absolutely stable for all value of R.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1, 2, & 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

74. For the transfer function G(S)H(S) = the phase cross over frequency is -
a) 0.5 rad/sec
b) 0.707 rad/sec
c) 1.732 rad/sec
d) 2 rad/sec
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Examination previous years 2007 2008 Question Paper free donwload online. solutions coming soon!
75. If the open loop transfer function of the system is G(S) H(S) =
then a closed loop pole will be located at S = -12 wher the value of K is -
a) 4355
b) 5760
c) 9600
d) 9862

76. Considering the following open loop transfer function -
The correct sequence of these systems in increasing order of the time taken for the unit step response to settle is –
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 1
d) 3, 2, 1.

77. Considering unit feed back control system in the given figure, the ratio of time constant of closed loop response to open

loop response will be -

a) 1: 1
b) 2 :1
c) 3 : 2
d) 2 : 3

78. Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is -
a) 17.340
b) 51.40
c) 1200
d) 600

79.For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because -
a) Phase can be varied from +1800 to -1800
b) It is resistant to the effects of noise.
c) Demodulation is very easy
d) It gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel.

80 . Several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known as –
a) Frequency division multiplex
b) Time division multiplex
c) A group
d) A super group

81. Identify the wrong statement-
The radar cross section of a target -
a) Depends on the frequency used
b) May be reduced by special coating of the target
c) Depends on the aspect of a target, if this is non spherical
d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.

82. Considering following parameters -
1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of the wave. Which of these

parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating electromagnetic wave?
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by -
a) poor front-end rejection
b) misalignment of receiver
c) detuning of one or more IF stages.
d) non functioning of AGC

84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is -
a) 262 1/2
b) 525
c) 30
d) 60

85. In a TV receiver the color killer -
a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome receivers.
b) ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers
c) prevents color overloading
d) makes sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off reception during the back porch.

86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m and the characteristic impedance of 50W. The inductance of

the cable is-
a) 1mH/m
b) 10 mH/m
c) 0.1 mH/m
d) 0.01 mH/m

87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is -
a) distortion less transmission
b) generates undesirable harmonic distortion
c) having loss of power
d) None of above.

88. Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) -
a) Greater mismatch error
b) Lower mismatch error
c) No effect on matching
d) Moderate mismatch error

89. In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be -
a) Critically coupled
b) Under coupled
c) Over coupled
d) No coupling required

90. The critical frequency is always -
a) Lower than maximum usable frequency
b) Equal to maximum usable frequency
c) Higher than maximum usable frequency
d) None of above

91. The PIN diode based on -
a) Nonlinear resistance
b) Nonlinear reactance
c) Negative resistance
d) Controllable impedence

92. Which antenna having circular polarization -
a) Horn antenna
b) Lens antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Discone antenna

93. The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 and the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is -
a) 250
b) 55
c) 10
d) 45

94. In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location -
a) 30 H
b) 24 H
c) 48 H
d) 60 H

95. In instruction cycle first operation is -
a) Memory read
b) Address read
c) Opcode fetch
d) Data read

96. CMP instruction comes under group -
a) Data transfer
b) Branching operations
c) Machine control operation
d) Logical operations.

97.In which logic operation does not effect any flags -
a) ANA B
b) ORA B
c) XRI A2H
d) CMA

98.What happen when CALL instruction executed -
a) Data retrieved from stock to register
b) Data from register saved on the stock.
c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock
d) 16 bit address from stock retrieved)

99 The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of -
a) stack pointer.
b) HL register .
c) Program counter
d) Accumulator
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100.The decoder is a logic ckt that -
a) Amplifies the current or power at i/p.
b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p
c) Provides appropriate code as o/p for each i/p signal
d) Both b & c)

101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how ————— he was -
a) indigent
b) indifferent
c) assiduous
d) cursory.

102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is -
a) almanac
b) beacon
c) sign
d) signal.

103.What is the correct meaning of prudish.?
a) careful
b) fast
c) God
d) brave

104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number -
a) woman – women.
b) hair – hairs
c) child – children.
d) foot – feet.

105.Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-
Abut is
a) Stimulate
b) Grasp
c) Oppose
d) Adjoin

106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is -
a) Mount Everest
b) Kanchenjunga
c) Nanda Devi
d) Mount Kailash

107. German silver is an alloy comprising -
a) Copper, Nickel and Zinc
b) Silver, copper and Zinc
c) Silver Nickel and Zinc
d) Nickel, Zinc and Lead

108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar’s mausoleum is in -
a) Delhi
b) Lahore
c) Yangon
d) Agra

109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York and Pentagon in Washington d)C was attacked by terrorist -
a) 12 September 2001
b) 11 September 2001
c) 11 July 2001
d) 20 December 2001

110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey Tournament in Kualalumpur by -
a) 4-2
b) 2-0
c) 3-2
d) 2-1

111.Which planets in the solar system are known as ‘Inferior Planets’ -
a) Earth and Mars
b) Earth and Mercury
c) Mars and Mercury
d) Mercury and Venus.

112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at -
a) Nellore
b) Amravati
c) Tanjore
d) Kozhikode

113. The new chairman and Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is -
a) Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh
b) Mr. Jitendra Patil
c) Mr. Ragh
d) Mr. Shubhash chand Jain

114. Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples?
a) Ajanta
b) Ellora
c) Elephanta
d) All originated in the same period)

115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu and Kashmir and the North East under the new ordinance ‘POTO’ is -
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23

116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand?
a) Ganga
b) Mandakini
c) Alakananda
d) Bhagirathi

117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the -
a) Cornea
b) Sclera
c) Iris
d) Retina

118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the -
a) 40th Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment
c) 43rd Amendment
d) 44th Amendment

119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by -
a) Guru Hargovind
b) Guru Nanak Dev
c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
d) Guru Govind singh

120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is -
a) 27
b) 28
c) 29
d) 30

BSNL JTO

1. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then

which of the following will have least value in ohms-
a.) Resistance
b.) Reactance
c.) Impedance
d.) None

2 Oscillator crystal are made of –
a.) Silicon
b.) Germanium
c.) Quartz
d.) None

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-
a. )Air
b. )Ferrite
c.) Powdered ion
d.) Steel

4. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic

plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as

shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
a.)
b.)C
c.)2C
d.)4C

5. A superconductor is a –
a.)A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.)A conductor having zero resistance
c.)A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.)A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of

the inductor would be –
a)8.05 pF
b)10.05pF
c.)16.01pF
d.)20.01pF

7. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
a.)Inductance
b.)Capacitance
c.)Resistance
d.)None

8. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
a.)Resistance in the line
b.)Capacitor in series with contacts
c.)Capacitor in parallel with contacts
d.)None

9. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.)Class ‘A’
b.)Class ‘b’
c.)Class ‘C’
d.)None

10. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.)High positive
b.)High negative
c.)Low positive
d.)Zero

11. The input gate current of a FET is –
a.)a few microamperes
b.)negligibly small
c.)a few milliamperes
d.)a few amperes

12. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –
a.)25 mA
b.)40 mA
c.)25/16 mA
d.)10 mA

13. A step recovery diode –
a.)has on extremely short recovery time
b.)conducts equally well in both directions
c.)is mainly used as a harmonic generator
d.)is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

14. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be

approximately-
a.)0.1V
b.)5V
c.)10V
d) V

15. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
a.)source
b.)drain
c.)gate
d.)none

16. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –
a.)Triac
b.)UJT
c.)Diac
d.)SCR

17. A typical optical fibre has –
a.)High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.)Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.)Both a and b
d.)None

18. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
a.)9
b.)11
c.)10
d.)21

19. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to

obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be –
a.)3 – j1
b.)3 + j9
c.)7.5 + j 2.5
d.)7.5 – j 2.5
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solutions coming shortly!
20. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –
a.)5
b.)6.5
c.)8
d.)9

21. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the

characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-
a.)Z0 cot h Öl
b.)Z0 cot Öl
c.)Z0 tan h.Ö l
d.) Z0 tan Öl

22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –
a.)l
b.)l/4
c.)l/2
d.)l/
23 A relatively permanent information is stored in
a. )ROM
b.)RAM
c.)PROM
d.)Volatile memory
24. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to –
b.) RC
c.) 2RC
d.) 4RC

25. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ’s’ and then if the switch

is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –
a.) cos50tA
b.) 2A
c.) 2cos100tA
d.) 2sin50tA

26. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be

respectively –
a) 9W, 6W and 6W
b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
d.) 6W, 9W and 6W

27. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series

then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
d.) indeterminate

28. Joule/coulomb is the unit of -
a.) Electric field potential
b.) Potential
c .) Charge
d.) None of the above

29. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
a.) Are parallel to each other
b.)Are one and same
c.) Cut each other orthogonally
d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle

30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the

characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line

31. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector

at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
a.) In the +x direction
b.) In the –x direction
c. ) In the +y direction
d.) In the –y direction

32. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
d.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

33. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
a.) TM01
b.)TE10
c.) TM112
d.)TE11

34. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d

sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –
35. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then

this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated

power with the same excitation will be
a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value
b.)Remain the same
c. )Increase
d.)Decrease to zero

36. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be

accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above

37. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.

38. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter

39. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?
a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.
b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.
c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
BSNL recruitment / placement examination paper for previous years 2007 2008 2009 sample aptitude / reasoning / technical

questions free download here. Answers key / solutions coming soon!
40. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement

sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –
a.) 11.1
b.) 44.2
c.) 52.3
d.) 66.3

41. The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

42. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance

50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75

43. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

44. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C

45. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –
a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
b.) Silicon (Si)
c.) Copper (Cu)
d.) Germanium (Ge)

46. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 3
d.) 4

47. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
a. b.
c. d.
48. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters
a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

49. In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
S is closed at t = 0 the
maximum value of current and the
time at which it reaches this value are respectively.
a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
b.) 50 A, 30 mS
c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS
d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-
a.) 200 A
b.) 170.7 A
c.) 141.4 A
d.) 70.7 A

51. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by
The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately

a.) 5850 KHZ
b.)585 KHZ
c.) 5850 HZ
d.)585HZ

52. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
a). Higher current carrying
b.)Lower ripple factor
c.) Higher efficiency
d.)Lower peak increase voltage require

53. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
a.) If the conduction angle decrease
b).If the conduction angle increase
c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
d.)None of the above

54. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal

biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is-
a.)75
b.)76
c.)75/76
d.)-75

55. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off

56. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling

57. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides
a.) Current series feedback
b.)Current shunt feedback
c.) Voltage series feedback
d.)Voltage shunt feedback

58. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

59. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –
a.) PISO shift register
b.) SOIP shift register
c.) SIPO shift register
d.) POIS shift register

60. PROMs are used to store-
a.) bulk information
b.) information to be accessed rarely
c.) sequence information
d.) relatively permanent information

61. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-
a.) Output bit combination
b.) analog output voltage
c.) input bit combination
d.) none of the above

62. ‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a.) s = 0, R = 0
b.) s = 1, R = 1
c.) s = 0, R = 1
d.) s = 1, R = 0

63. Name the fastest logic family-
a) TTL
b. RTL
c.) DCTL
d.) ECL

64. Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is –
a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB
c.) A + AB = A
d.) None of the above

65. In the given fig find radix of the system –
a.) 2b.) 4
c.) 6
d.) 8

66. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –
a.) increase the transmission capacity
b) improve noice performance
c.) incorporate error control coding
d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal

67. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is-
a.)
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5

68. Identify the example of open-loop system-
a.) A windscreen wiper
b.) Aqualung
c.) Respiratory system of an animal
d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.

69. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
a.) 1&3
b.) 1&4
c.) 2&4
d.) 1&4
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment / placement last exam paper previous years 2007 2008 2009 free sample papers here.
70. A system is described by
To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.
Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
a.) Only V1
b.)Only V2
c.) Both V1 and V2
d.) Neither V1 nor v2
71. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function

72. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-


73. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4

74. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second

75. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142

76. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
77. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.)The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing

78. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.

79. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

80. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

81. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

82. Circuit in the given figure represents. –
a.) an astable multivibrator
b.) A monostable multivibrator
c.) Voltage controlled oscillator
d.) Ramp generator

83. . D = r is-
a.) Maxwell’s 1st equation
b.) Maxwell’s II equation
c.) Maxwell’s III equation
d.) Maxwell’s IV equation

84. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-
a.) TM00
b.) TM01
c.) Tm10
d.) TM11

85. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
a). port 4
b). port 3
c. port 2.
d.) port 3 & 4.

86. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
a.) Barometer are used
b.) Thermisters are used
c.) Calorimetric technique
d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used

87. The difference between TWT & klystron is –
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact

88. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
a.) Hown antennas
b.) Bioconical antennas
c.) helical antenna
d. Discone

89. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
a.)
b.)
c.)
d.)

90. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
a.) 4
b.) 6
c.) 8
c.) 10

91. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5

92. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0
b.) z = 0, cy = 1
c.) z = 1, cy = 0
d.) z = 1, cy = 1
93. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
b.) when INTA signal is low.
c. interrupt flip flop enabled.
d.) none of above.

94. Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor
b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer
d.) for programming o/p / i/p

95. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
a.) interpreter
b.) compiler
c.) operating
d.) system

96. (10110011)2 = (?)8
a.) 253
b.) 263
c.) 273
d.) 283

97. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-
a.) NAND
b.) NOR
c.) AND
d.) NOPE.

98. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NAND
d.) X-OR

99. 38. A symbol of JK flip flop is-
BSNL Free download previous years 2007 2008 2009 recruitment question papers for GE JTO exam sample papers. Answer keys /

solutions coming soon!
100. A demultiplener-
a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p

101. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?
a.) fascination
b.) open approval.
c.) Indulgent tolerance.
d.) Scornful.

102. What type of sentence is this ?
Hurray! We won the match
a.) Exclamatory
b.) assertive
c.) Negative
d.) Affirmative

103. Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’
a.) hour
b.) M. A.
c.) Umbrella
d.) Man

104. The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –
a.) freshly
b.) freshen
c.) fresheners
d.) fresh itself

105. The word ‘clang’ is an example of –
a.) Simile
b.) inversion
c.) onomatopoeia
d.) irony

106. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-
a.) Pentafour software
b) Infosys
c.) IBM
d.) Wipro

107. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-
a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain
b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan
c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan

108. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-
a.) 42nd
b.) 43rd
c.) 40th
d.) 45th

109. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-
a.) T. Venkat Naidu
b.) K. Hari Harh
c.) N. Rengaswany
d.) M. Mudliar

110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This

is enshrined in Article-
a.) 311
b.) 329
c.) 356
d.) 365

111. Ostrich is a-
a.) Running bird
b.) Flying bird
c) Swimming bird
d.) Migratory bird

112. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-
a.) Oxygen
b.) Nitrogen
c.) Ozone
d.) Carbon-dioxide

113. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-
a.) Rice
b.) groundnut
c.) Sugarcane
d.) gram

114. The function of World Bank is to-
a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade

115. Speed of sound is maximum in-
a. )Water
b.) Air
c.) Steel
d.) Vacuum
116. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
c.) Lajpat Rai
d.) Bhagat Singh

117. Durand cup is associated with-
a.) Hockey
b.) Tennis
c.) Football
d.) Badminton

118. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
a.) 1908
b.) 1910
c.) 1913
d.) 1914

119. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-
a.) May 18, 1975
b.) May 20, 1974
c) May 17, 1974
d.) May 17, 1974

120. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
a.) Asian development Bank
b.) World Bank
c.) Swiss Bank
d.) Reserve Bank of India

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