Engg Multiple Choice Questions

2011-10-05T18:04:00.003+05:30

AEE Electrical Engineering-2011

Answers are almost correct but not sure,

If Any Queries, Fell free to contact through mail (bjs203@gmail.com)

General Paper-1 Set-A
1-1
2-2
3-2
4-2
5-3
6-2
7-1
8-4
9-1
10-2
11-
12-4
13-1
14-
15-1
16-2
17-3
18-1
19-2
20-4
21-1
22-2
23-4
24-2
25-4
26-2
27-4
28-1
29-1
30-4
31-1
32-4
33-2
34-4
35-3
36-2
37-2
38-4
39-1
40-3
41-1
42-
43-3
44-4
45-4
46-4
47-4
48-3
49-2
50-4
51-3
52-3
53-4
54-1
55-4
56-3
57-2
58-2
59-3
60-3
61-1
62-4
63-2
64-4
65-1
66-3
67-
68-1
69-4
70-
71-3
72-4
73-1
74-3
75-2
76-2
77-1
78-4
79-2
80-4
81-1
82-3
83-3
84-4
85-3
86-4
87-2
88-3
89-1
90-3
91-1
92-3
93-2
94-4
95-1
96-3
97-1
98-4
99-3
100-1
101-4
102-2
103-3
104-1
105-3
106-3
107-3
108-4
109-2
110-4
111-2
112-1
113-3
114-2
115-3
116-1
117-3
118-2
119-2
120-3
121-4
122-3
123-2
124-3
125-3
126-3
127-
128-4
129-
130-4
131-2
132-1
133-
134-1
135-3
136-
137-4
138-3
139-1
140-3
141-2
142-1
143-3
144-3
145-2
146-4
147-2
148-
149-1
150-3

2011-10-05T18:01:00.002+05:30

AEE Electrical Engineering-2011

Answers are almost correct but not sure,

If Any Queries, Fell free to contact through mail (bjs203@gmail.com)

Paper-3 Set-A

1-3
2-2
3-3
4-1
5-3
6-4
7-1
8-3
9-1
10-3
11-3
12-2
13-3
14-3
15-3
16-1
17-3
18-2
19-4
20-2
21-2
22-2
23-2
24-4
25-1
26-2
27-4
28-4
29-4
30-1
31-
32-2
33-3
34-3
35-1
36-3
37-2
38-1
39-3
40-1
41-2
42-2
43-1
44-
45-1,2
46-1
47-2
48-1
49-3
50-3
51-4
52-1
53-1
54-2
55-2
56-1
57-1
58-1
59-
60-
61-4
62-3
63-1
64-none of bove
65-4
66-2
67-2
68-3
69-4
70-2
71-4
72-4
73-1
74-2
75-1
76-1
77-4
78-4
79-3
80-2
81-1
82-4
83-3
84-1
85-4
86-1
87-2
88-4
89-2
90-1
91-2
92-2
93-1
94-1
95-2
96-1
97-2
98-
99-2
100-4
101-4
102-2
103-4
104-2
105-4
106-2
107-1
108-1
109-
110-3
111-1
112-4
113-1
114-66kv
115-2
116-1
117-
118-4
119-3
120-
121-1
122-4
123-1
124-
125-2
126-1
127-3
128-3
129-1
130-4
131-3
132-4
133-4
134-1
135-4
136-3
137-1
138-4
139-1
140-2
141-4
142-
143-4
144-3
145-3
146-1
147-4
148-4
149-
150-1

2011-10-05T17:42:00.004+05:30

AEE Electrical Engineering-2011

Answers are almost correct but not sure,

If Any Queries, Fell free to contact through mail (bjs203@gmail.com)

Paper-2 Set-A
1-2
2-1
3-
4-4
5-4
6-1
7-3
8-4
9-2
10-4
11-1
12-1
13-
14-1
15-3
16-1
17-4
18-2
19-2
20-1
21-4
22-1
23-4
24-2
25-3
26-3
27-2
28-2
29-
30-1
31-4
32-
33-1
34-
35-3
36-2
37-2
38-4
39-1
40-1
41-2
42-
43-4
44-2
45-1
46-3
47-2
48-2
49-2
50-1
51-3
52-4
53-1
54-2
55-3
56-3
57-4
58-3
59-3
60-3
61-1
62-1
63-1
64-1
65-
66-
67-2
68-3
69-4
70-1
71-2
72-3
73-3
74-4
75-
76-3
77-1
78-3
79-3
80-1
81-2
82-2
83-2
84-2
85-4
86-1
87-2
88-4
89-3
90-3
91-3
92-2
93-1
94-1
95-2
96-2
97-4
98-3
99-1
100-4
101-1
102-4
103-4
104-2
105-4
106-4
107-2
108-
109-1
110-3
111-1
112-3
113-4
114-1
115-1
116-1
117-3
118-
119-2
120-4
121-1
122-3
123-2
124-4
125-4
126-1
127-1
128-3
129-2
130-4
131-3
132-3
133-4
134-1
135-2
136-1
137-3
138-3
139-3
140-4
141-3
142-2
143-1
144-2
145-3
146-3
147-2
148-
149-4
150-

EPDCL 2010 AE ELECTRICAL

2011-04-22T15:52:00.005+05:30

EPDCL 2010 AE ELECTRICAL
EXAM PAPER

Old Notifications

2011-01-07T18:19:00.003+05:30

Old Notifications

SOUTHERN POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P.LIMITED(APSPDCL)

NOTIFICATION RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT ENGINEER(Elecl.) ON REGULAR BASIS

CLICK HERE FOR FULL DETAILS

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NORTHERN POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P. Ltd.(APNPDCL)

N O T I F I C A T I O N RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT ENGINEER(Elecl.) ON REGULAR BASIS

CLICK HERE FOR FULL DETAILS

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Eastern Power Distribution Company of Andhra Pradesh Limited (APEPDCL) (APEPDCL)

N O T I F I C A T I O N RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT ENGINEER(Elecl.) ON REGULAR BASIS

CLICK HERE FOR FULL DETAILS

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

CENTRAL POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P.LTD.(APCPSCL)

N O T I F I C A T I O N RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT ENGINEER(Elecl.) ON REGULAR BASIS

CLICK HERE FOR FULL DETAILS

2010-05-22T15:14:00.002+05:30

SOUTHERN POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P.LIMITED(APSPDCL)

N O T I F I C A T I O N RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT ENGINEER(Elecl.) ON REGULAR BASIS

CLICK HERE FOR FULL DETAILS

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NORTHERN POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P. Ltd.(APNPDCL)

N O T I F I C A T I O N RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT ENGINEER(Elecl.) ON REGULAR BASIS

CLICK HERE FOR FULL DETAILS

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Eastern Power Distribution Company of Andhra Pradesh Limited (APEPDCL) (APEPDCL)

N O T I F I C A T I O N RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT ENGINEER(Elecl.) ON REGULAR BASIS

CLICK HERE FOR FULL DETAILS

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

CENTRAL POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P.LTD.(APCPSCL)

N O T I F I C A T I O N RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT ENGINEER(Elecl.) ON REGULAR BASIS

CLICK HERE FOR FULL DETAILS

IES CUTOFF

2010-04-16T19:39:00.001+05:30

Marks obtained out of 1000 to qualify for the written test (5 papers * 200 marks/paper)

2008

CATE	GEN	OBC	SC	ST
CIVIL	310	277	270	248
MECH	330	259	256	219
ELEC	370	311	278	286
E & T	388	346	306	297

2009

CATE	GEN	OBC	SC	ST
CIVIL	261	219	204	208
MECH	333	285	238	226
ELEC	341	296	267	225
E & T	440	401	348	296

2004 for E & C branch (no negative marks in this year)

Rank 1

EP-1(OBJE)

EP-2(OBJE)

EP-1(CONV)

EP-2(CONV)

PENALITY

INTER

VIEW

TOTAL

122

135

156

118

716

Rank 2

EP-1(OBJE)

EP-2(OBJE)

EP-1(CONV)

EP-2(CONV)

PENALITY

INTER

VIEW

TOTAL

122

138

129

113

140

714

Rank20

EP-1(OBJE)

EP-2(OBJE)

EP-1(CONV)

EP-2(CONV)

PENALITY

INTER

VIEW

TOTAL

118

117

102

536

Rank 30

EP-1(OBJE)

EP-2(OBJE)

EP-1(CONV)

EP-2(CONV)

PENALITY

INTER

VIEW

TOTAL

101

130

517

2007 highest mark 732

Last mark in general category 594(24th rank)

2008 highest mark 655

Last mark in general category 530(40th rank)

Electrical

He got 1st Rank and Marks are as follows...

EP-1(OBJE)

EP-2(OBJE)

EP-1(CONV)

EP-2(CONV)

PENALITY

INTER

VIEW

TOTAL

122

109

145

661

He is the last in the list
Name: SATYENDRA KUMAR DOTAN

Category : SC
Engineering Service Examination, 2008

EP-1(OBJE)

EP-2(OBJE)

EP-1(CONV)

EP-2(CONV)

PENALITY

INTER

VIEW

TOTAL

414

I have the marks in IES 08 like this but finally I am not selected category general branch electrical

EP-1(OBJE)

EP-2(OBJE)

EP-1(CONV)

EP-2(CONV)

PENALITY

INTER

VIEW

TOTAL

202

109

110

485

But finally I am not selected.

2010-03-27T23:53:00.002+05:30

Advt. No. 4/2009 - Recruitment of GETs

In Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL)

Memory based Question paper

For Electrical Engineering

Note: If Answer contains * means Answer is may be correct but not sure,

If Any Queries, Fell free to contact through mail (bjs203@gmail.com)

1. Transformer core are laminated for what purpose?

a)Reduce copper losses

b)Reduce iron losses

c)Reduce eddy current losses

d)Reduce hysteresis losses

Ans: Reduce eddy current losses

2.240V 1-phase 50Hz 10A, 0.8 pf lag energy meter, Revolution/kwh=400 then find speed of the disk in rpm

a)12.8

b)21.1

c)18.1

d)19.2

Ans:12.8

3.1-phase AC supply is given to the ___________in he single phase induction motor

a)Stator

b)Rotor

c)Both

d)None

Ans:Stator

4.Synchronous motor operated at leading pf when

a)Under exited

b)Over exited

c)Normal exited

d)None

Ans:Over exited

5.CMRR=100 dB, Differential mode gain=10 power 4 then find Common mode gain

a)10

b)0.1

c)1

d)10 power 5

Ans:0.1

6.3-phase, 50 Hz 6 pole synchronous motor rotate at

a)1000 rmp

b)1500 rpm

c)1800 rpm

d)3600 rpm

Ans:1000 rpm

7.Nr=727.5 rpm for 3-phase 50 Hz 8 pole induction motor find rotor frequency

a)1.5 Hz

b)50 Hz

c)75 Hz

d)60 Hz

Ans:1.5 Hz

8.3-phase rectifier ripple frequency is_________ if supply frequency is 50 Hz

a)50 Hz

b)100 Hz

c)150 Hz

d)300 Hz

Ans:300 Hz

9.18/9+8-2*5=________ in C

a)0

b)9

c)5

d)7

Ans:0

10.find K G(s)=K/s(s power 2+s+2)(s+3)

Ans:

11.Find critically damped system

a)1/(S power2+2S+4)

b) 1/(S power2+4S+4)

c) 1/(S power2-2S+4)

d) 1/(S power2-4S+4)

Ans: 1/(S power2+4S+4)

12.C is capacitance of A=10cm*10cm then find C for A=2.5cm*2.5cm

a)C/4

b)C/8

c)C/16

d)C/32

Ans:C/16

13.Ammeter carries 1mA current with internal resistance of 1 Kohm, this meter is used for 10V measurement how much resistance is adding in series to the circuit

a)10kohm

b)9Kohm

c)0.9Kohm

d)1Kohm

Ans:9Kohm

14.Damping torque used in energy meter is

a)Electro static

b)Electro magnetic

c)eddy current

d)None

Ans:eddy current

15.For DC shunt machine applied voltage is half then speed of machine will be

a)Increses and double

b)Decreases and half

c)Decreases lightly

d)No change

Ans: Decreases lightly

16.Y=ABCD+A’BCD+AB’CD+A’B’CD

a)A+B

b)CD

c)C+D

d)AB

Ans:CD

17.Wait status can be achieved in 8085 micro processor by]

a)TRAP

b)DMA

c)HOLD

d)INTR

Ans:HOLD

18.DMA can do

a)Data transfer between memory and I/O devices with out use of processor

Ans: Data transfer between memory and I/O devices with out use of processor

19.Resolution =0.001V for 10V measurement how many bits we need in Analog to digital converters

a)4

b)8

c)16

d)14

Ans:16

20.X-plate 20sin(wt), Y-plate 20sin(wt+a) what value of ‘a’ lissajous pattern is circle

a)0 deg

b)90 deg

c)180 deg

d)360 deg

Ans:90 deg

21.High frequency transformer core is made up of

a)Copper

b)Csat steel

c)Graphite

d)Ferrite

Ans:Ferrite

22.In permanent magnet motor Voltage is

a)Praportional to Speed

b)Praportional to Current

Ans:

23.C is capacitance, L is inductance then Sqr root of(L/C) is

a)Resistance

b)Power factor

c)Voltage drop

d)Reactance

Ans:Resistance

24.For type-2 servo motor can be exited by ramp input then study state error is

a)0

b)1

c)infinity

d)None

Ans:0

25.1/(1+RCS) is exited by step function then

a)Ve(t/RC)

b)Ve(-t/RC)

c)V(1+e(-t/RC))

d)V(1-e(-t/RC))

Ans: Ve(-t/RC)

26. Gain is 10 power 5 and one pole at 100 Hz then band width is

a)1000

b)100

c)100000

d)1

Ans:

27.In CC configuration of amplifier has

a)High input Impedance and low output impedance

b)Low input Impedance and High output impedance

c)Low input Impedance and low output impedance

d)High input Impedance and High output impedance

Ans: High input Impedance and low output impedance

28.load of 100 ohm and step down transformer of 2:1 if load is reflected to primary is

a)100 ohm

b)50 ohm

c)400 ohm

d)500 ohm

Ans:400 ohm

29.20:1 gear box output is 200W then input is

a)10W

b)200W

c)4KW

Ans::

2010-02-27T13:45:00.002+05:30

TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED

Memory based Question paper

For Electrical Engineering (A.E-2008)

Note: If Answer contains * means Answer is may be correct but not sure,

If Any Queries, Fell free to contact through mail (bjs203@gmail.com)

Q. The ratio of voltage and electric current in a closed circuit
a) remains constant
b) varies
c) increases
d) falls

Ans: remains constant

Q. The resistance of a wire varies inversely as
a) area of cross section
b) length
c) resistivity
d) temperature

Ans: area of cross section

Q. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of ( in ohm-1 m-1)
a) 10 to the power of 7
b) 10 to the power of 5
c) 10 to the power of -4
d) 10 to the power of -6

Ans: 10 to the power of 5*

Q. Four resistors, each of resistance R ohms are available. The minimum resistance of the combination will be
a) 4R
b) R
c) R/4
d) R/8

Ans: R/4

Q. The elements which are not capable of delivering energy by its own are known as
a) unilateral elements
b) non-linear elements
c) passive elements
d) active elements

Ans: passive elements

Q. The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic material is
a) less than zero
b) less than one but positive
c) greater than one
d) equal to zero

Ans:

Q. The Direction of current in an ac circuit
a) is from positive to negative
b) is always in one direction
c) varies from instant to instant
d) Cannot be determined

Ans: varies from instant to instan

Q. which of the following statements associated with purely resistive circuits is correct?
a) PF is unity
b) Power consumed is zero
c) Heat produced is zero
d) PF is zero

Ans: PF is unity

Q. The magnetic field energy in an inductor changes from maximum value to minimum value in in 5m sec when connected to an ac source. The frequency of the source is
a) 20 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 200 Hz
d) 500 Hz

Ans: 50 Hz

Q. Electronic control systems have the serious draw-backs of
a) low reliability
b) operational difficulty
c) temperature sensitiveness
d) all of above

Ans: temperature sensitiveness*

Q. The system whose characteristic equation has the following roots is marginally stable
a) -j, j, -1,1
b) -3,-2,0
c) -2+3j, -2-3j, -2
d) -3,-2,-1

Ans:

Q. A phase log compensation will
a) improve relative stability
b) increase the speed of response
c) increase band-width
d) increase overshoot

Ans: improve relative stability*

Q. For Nyquist plot we use

a) open loop function
b) closed loop function
c) characteristic equation
d) any of the above

Ans: any of the above

Q. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is

a) highly stable
b) oscillatory
c) relatively stable
d) none of these

Ans: oscillatory

Q. Root locus diagram exhibits the

a) frequency response of a system
b) poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
c) bandwidth of system
d) all of the above

Ans: poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values

Q. Increase in the gain K makes the system

a) more stable
b) unstable
c) marginally stable
d) none of above

Ans: unstable

Q. The transfer function of a system is used to determine

a) the output for a given input
b) the type of system
c) the input for a given output
d) the steady state gain

Ans:

Q. In a servo system the voltage induced in the control transformer rotor is the

a) error voltage
b) driving voltage
c) opposing voltage
d) none of these

Ans: error voltage

Q. With the feedback system, the transient response

a) decays slowly
b) decays rapidly
c) rises slowly
d) rises quickly

Ans: decays rapidly

Q. Which of the following types of instrument is an integrating instrument?

a) power factor meter
b) energy meter
c) watt meter
d) frequent meter

Ans: energy meter

Q. Which material is used for make the ’swamping’ resistance that is connected in series with the working coil of a voltmeter?

a) Constanta
b) Manganin
c) Eureka
d) Nichrome

Ans: Manganin

Q. What are used to increase the range of ammeters.

a) Multipliers
b) Shunts
c) Control Springs
d) Potential transformers

Ans: Shunts

Q. Which voltmeter do you select for measuring 50KV DC?

a) Moving Coil Voltmeter
b) Hot wire voltmeter
c) Electro Dynamo meter
d) Electrostatic Voltmeter

Ans: Hot wire voltmeter*

Q. Which of the following you will prefer to extend the range of an ac voltmeter?

a) Low series resistance
b) high resistance in parallel
c) CT
d) PT

Ans: PT

Q. High AC voltages are usually measured with

a) magnetic voltmeter
b) inductive voltmeter
c) potential transformers with voltmeters
d) current transformers and voltmeters

Ans: potential transformers with voltmeters

Q. Creeping is the phenomena occurs in

a) voltmeter
b) watt meter
c) energy meter
d) ammeter

Ans: energy meter

Q. If the Supply voltage is increased by n times, the cross section of feeder will decrease by ________ times ?
a) n
b) 1/n
c) n sqr
d) 1/n sqr

Ans: n

Q. The Frequency is measured by _________ bridge ?
a) Wheatstone bridge
b) hays bridge
c) Owens bridge
d) weins bridge

Ans: wiens bridge

Q. The Source internal Resistance Rs , When equal to Load resistance RL, the maximum transferred is of _____ % of input power?
a) 100
b) 75
c) 50
d) 40

Ans: 50

TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED

2010-02-26T21:19:00.002+05:30

TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED

Memory based Question paper

For Electrical Engineering (A.E-2010)

Note: If Answer contains * means Answer is may be correct but not sure,

If Any Queries, Fell free to contact through mail (bjs203@gmail.com)

1. Mho relay is usually employed for the protection of
a) Short lines only
b) Medium lines only
c) Long lines only
d) Any line

Ans: Long lines only

2. A modern power semiconductor device IGBT is combines the characteristics of
a) BJT and MOSFET
b) FCT and GTO
c) SCR and MOSFET
d) SCR and BJT

Ans: BJT and MOSFET

3. For a single-phase a.c. to d.c. controlled rectifier to operate in regenerative mode, which of the following conditions should be satisfied?
a) Half –controlled bridge, α less than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
b) Half-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
c) Full-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
d) Full-controlled bridge, α less than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load

Ans: Full-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load

4. Which is the most suitable power device for high frequency ( more 100 kHz) switching application?
a) Power MOSFET
b) BJT
c) SCR
d) UJT

Ans: Power MOSFET

5. In a thyristor Latching current is ________ than Holding current
a) Equal
b) Less
c) Greater
d) None

Ans: Greater

6. The transfer function of a system is 10/(1+s) when operating as a unity feedback system, the steady state error to a step input will be
a) 0
b) 1/11
c) 10
d) Infinity

Ans: 1/11

7. Which one of the following statements for a dc machine which is provided with inter pole winding (IW) as well as compensating winding (CW) is correct
a) Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding
b) Both IW and CW are connected in parallel with Armature winding
c) IW connected in series but CW is connected in parallel with Armature winding
d) CW connected in series but IW is connected in parallel with Armature winding

Ans: Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding

8. A 0-10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 5mA in a circuit; its bottom control spring snaps out suddenly the meter will now read.
a) 5mA
b) 10mA
c) 2.5mA
d) 0

Ans: 0

9. A dc cumulatively compounded motor delivers rated load torque at rated speed. If series field is short circuited, then the armature current and speed will
a) Both increases
b) Both decreases
c) Increases and decreases
d) Decreases and increases

Ans: Both increases

10. Moving coil in dynamometer wattmeter connected
a) In series with fixed coil
b) Across supply
c) In series with load
d) Across load

Ans: Across supply

11. In an induction machine, if the air gap increased
a) Speed will be reduced
b) Efficiency will be improved
c) Power factor will be lowered
d) Breakdown torque will be reduced

Ans: Power factor will be lowered

12. A CRO screen has ten divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin 314t+45 deg)is examined with a line base settings of 5 msec/div, the number of cycles of signal displayed on the screen will be
a) 0.5 cycles
b) 2.5 cycles
c) 5 cycles
d) 10 cycles

Ans: 2.5 cycles

13. A 3-phase 50HZ SCIM takes a power input of 30 KW at its full load speed of 1440 rpm. Total stator losses are 1 KW. The slip and rotor ohmic losses at full load are
a) 0.02, 600 W
b) 0.04, 580 W
c) 0.04, 1160 W
d) 0.04, 1200 W

Ans: 0.04, 1160 W

14. Thermocouple is used to measure
a) AC
b) DC
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Both

15. The two watt meters measurement the ratio of two meter readings is –(1-sqrt3):( 1+sqrt3) then the power factor is

a) 1
b) 0.866
c) 0.707
d) 0

Ans: 0.707

16. Hays bridge is used to measure___________ and Schering bridge is used to measure____________

a) Inductance, Inductance
b) Inductance, Capacitance
c) Capacitance, Inductance
d) Resistance, Capacitance

Ans: Inductance, Capacitance

17. When sine wave is given as input to Schmitt trigger then its generates

a) Sine wave
b) Saw tooth wave
c) Triangle wave
d) Square wave

Ans: Square wave

18. In Gauss Seidel method the following factors are influenced for operation

a) Acceleration factor
b) Selection of slack buss
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Selection of slack buss*

19.
i. (X’+Y’) A. Low-pass filter function
ii. (X’Y’) B. Sum
iii. (XY) C. NAND
D. Carry
E.NOR

a) i-C, ii-E, iii-D
b) i-C, ii-E, iii-B
c) i-C, ii-B, iii-D
d) i-C, ii-E, iii-A

Ans: i-C, ii-E, iii-D

20. The phase lead compensation is used to
a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot
b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot
c) Increase both rise time and overshoot
d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot

Ans: Decrease rise time and increase overshoot

21. Voltage feed back amplifier is a

a) Shunt-Shunt
b) Shunt-Series
c) Series-Shunt
d) Series- Series

Ans: Shunt-Shunt

22. In microprocessor the next instruction to be executed is stored in

a) Program Counter
b) Stack Pointer
c) Memory Pointer
d) Accumulator

Ans: Program Counter

23. The following element retains it energy after source is disconnected

a) Resister
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
d) Thermistor

Ans:

24. In series RLC circuit at resonant

a) Voltage is in phase with current
b) Current is maximum
c) Inductive reactance = Capacitive reactance
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

25.For RC low pass filter R=100 K ohms, C= 5 micro farads then lower cutt of frequency is

a) 1 K HZ
b) 0 HZ
c) 381.3 HZ
d) Infinity

Ans:

26. V=100Sin (1000t+46 deg), I=2Sin (1000t+80 deg) what are the elements in the circuit

a) R=30 ohm, L=30 mH
b) R=30 ohm, C=33.3 micro farads
c) R=40 ohm, L=30 mH
d) R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads

Ans: R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads

27. L=10 mH, I=100Sin50t 0 less than t less than ∏/50 find power

a)
b)
c)
d)

Ans:

28. In dielectric measurement, the dielectric loss is proportional to

a) F
b) V
c) I
d) Vsqr

Ans: Vsqr

29. G(s) = (1-s)/s(s+2) then closed loop transfer function is

a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Marginally stable
d) All

Ans: Stable

30. G(s) = (1+0.5s)/(1+s) find which type of net work it is

a) Lead net work
b) Lag net work
c) Lag - Lead net work
d) Lead - Lag net work

Ans: Lag net work

31. Temperature of electrode in Arc furnace is

a) 1000 deg
b) 1500 deg
c) 1500 deg to 3500 deg
d) 4500 deg

Ans:

32. In bode plot the point which separates the lower and upper frequencies is called

a) Critical point
b) Cut-off point
c)
d)

Ans:

33. Nyquest stability is used to determine

a) Absolute Stability
b) Relative Stability
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Both*

34. When 220V dc shunt machine generating the voltage at rated value. If direction of rotation is reversed, then machine will

a) Build up its voltage with same polarity
b) Build up its voltage with opposite polarity
c) No build up of voltage
d) None

Ans: No build up of voltage

35. Over lap Angle depends on_________

a) Load inductance
b) Loa capacitance
c) Source inductance
d) Source capacitance

Ans: Source inductance

36. Area under speed time curve gives

a) Time
b) Speed
c) Distance
d) None

Ans: Distance

37. The regulation of Short Transmission lines depends up on

a) Distance of line
b) Frequency
c) Power factor
d) All

Ans: Power factor

38. Which of the following plant is having lowest load factor?

a) Diesel Plant
b) Pumped storage Plant
c) Thermal Plant
d) Nuclear Plant

Ans: Diesel Plan

39. For SR latch whent the out put is undesirable

a) 0, 0
b) 1, 0
c) 0, 1
d) 1, 1

Ans: 1, 1

40. For interrupting capacitive currents which Circuit Breaker (CB) is used

a) SF6 CB
b) Oil CB
c) Vacuum CB
d) Air blast CB

Ans: Vacuum CB

41. For V/F control, when frequency is increased in transformer

a) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current decreases
b) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current increases
c) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases
d) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current increases

Ans: Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases

42. In ceiling fan the angle between auxiliary winding a main winding is

a) 0 deg
b) 90 deg
c) 180 deg
d) 360 deg

Ans: 90 deg

43. In a shaded pole motor, shaded rings are used to

a) Field flux production
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Field flux production

44. Practical method of improving string efficiency

a) Increasing crass arms length
b) Using different size of insulators
c) Using different insulator materials
d) Using of guard rings

Ans: Increasing crass arms length*

45. In which type of fault all 3-phase components are equal

a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) 3-Phase fault

Ans: 3-Phase fault

46. 11/220 KV 100 MVA transformers, the primary base voltage rating is 10 KV then secondary base KV is

a) 10 KV
b) 220 KV
c) 220/sqrt3
d)

Ans: 220/sqrt3*

47. Water hamming effect is occurs in

a) Surge tank
b) Penstock
c) Turbine
d) Reservoir

Ans: Penstock

48. Transient stability can be improved by

a) By putting series capacitor
b) By using dynamic resister
c) Auto re-closers
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

49. If sending end voltage is Vs at no-load in a transmission line then receiving end voltage is if ABCD parameters of line is given

a) Vs
b) Vs/A
c) 0
d) Infinity

Ans: Vs/A

50. Harmonics are eliminated by using

a) Skewing of rotor
b) Distribution winding
c) Short pitch winding
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

51. For parallel operation of transformer at no load, then load shared are equal when

a) Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating

52. In Induction motor Slip frequency of rotor current, when rotor speed is Nr. Then rotor producing slip field rotates with respect to stator is

a) Slip frequency
b) Nr
c) Ns
d) None

Ans: Ns

53. Good regulation means

a) Less fluctuations from no-load to full-load
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Less fluctuation from no-load to full-load

54. At dead short circuit at terminals of Alternator then the current I is

a) ZPF Lag
b) ZPF lead
c) Unity power factor
d) 0.8 Power factor lag

Ans: ZPF Lag

55. Full scale Ammeter reading is 10 mA, Voltage across Ammeter is 100 mV. Then for 100 A measurements the power loss in the circuit is

a) 1 W
b) 10 W
c) 100 W
d) 1000 W

Ans: 10 W*

56. When Alternator excitation increases and machine is operating at lagging power factor then

a) I increase
b) I decreases
c) No effect on current
d) None

Ans: I increase

57. Flue gases coming out from furnace is first going through

a) Turbine
b) Economizer
c) Air pre-heater
d) Chimney

Ans: Economizer

58. Two alternators rated are 200 KW at 4% regulation, 400 KW 5% regulation operating in parallel at 50HZ , when supply 600 KW the new frequency is

a) 50
b) 49
c) 51.3
d) 47.7

Ans: 47.7

59. Va and Vb are negative sequence component voltages the difference angle between Va and Vb with respect to Va is

a) 240
b) 120
c) 180
d) 360

Ans: 120

60. 4-Quadrent operation of chopper I is positive but V is may be positive are negative operates in which quadrant

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4

Ans: 1 and 4

61. Heat convection, radiation, and conduction all are takes place in

a) Ice
b) Boiler
c) Refrigerator
d) Flue gases in pipe

Ans:

62. When moving iron meter is used to measure d.c current what is the disadvantage

a) It calibration in rms value
b)
c)
d)

Ans:

63. When maximum power transfer to load is
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) 20 W
b) 50 W
c) 100W
d) 0W

Ans: 0W

64. Find Zbus Parameters
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm

65. Find Z11 and Z12
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
b) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 5 ohm
c) Z11=5 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
d) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 3 ohm

Ans:

66. Current in 5 ohm resister is
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) 10 A
b) -10 A
c) 5 A
d) -5 A

Ans: -10 A

67. Find I in the circuit at t=0+
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) 2 A
b) 5 A
c) 7 A
d) 10 A

Ans:

68. Find voltage across inductor at t=0+
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) 0 V
b) 2.5 V
c) 5 V
d) 10 V

Ans: 5 V

69. This wave is applied to the PMMC meter, meter reads
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) 0 V
b) 3 V
c) 2 V
d) 1 V

Ans: 1 V

70. Find Vab
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) Zero
b) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
c) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
d) None

Ans:

71. Find E in the circuit
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) None

Ans: None

72. Vab is reference then angle between Vab and Ib is
Click Here to Show Diagram

a) -15 deg
b) 240 deg
c) 180 deg
d) -45 deg

Ans: -15 deg*

AP Transco Memory based question paper (Electrical)

2010-02-26T20:16:00.002+05:30

1. Mho relay is usually employed for the protection of
a) Short lines only
b) Medium lines only
c) Long lines only
d) Any line

Ans: Long lines only

2. A modern power semiconductor device IGBT is combines the characteristics of
a) BJT and MOSFET
b) FCT and GTO
c) SCR and MOSFET
d) SCR and BJT

Ans: BJT and MOSFET

3. For a single-phase a.c. to d.c. controlled rectifier to operate in regenerative mode, which of the following conditions should be satisfied?
a) Half –controlled bridge, α < 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
b) Half-controlled bridge, α > 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
c) Full-controlled bridge, α > 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
d) Full-controlled bridge, α < 90°, source of e.m.f. in load

Ans: Full-controlled bridge, α > 90°, source of e.m.f. in load

4. Which is the most suitable power device for high frequency ( more 100 kHz) switching application?
a) Power MOSFET
b) BJT
c) SCR
d) UJT

Ans: Power MOSFET

5. In a thyristor Latching current is ________ than Holding current
a) Equal
b) Less
c) Greater
d) None

Ans: Greater

6. The transfer function of a system is 10/(1+s) when operating as a unity feedback system, the steady state error to a step input will be
a) 0
b) 1/11
c) 10
d) Infinity

Ans: 1/11

7. Which one of the following statements for a dc machine which is provided with inter pole winding (IW) as well as compensating winding (CW) is correct
a) Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding
b) Both IW and CW are connected in parallel with Armature winding
c) IW connected in series but CW is connected in parallel with Armature winding
d) CW connected in series but IW is connected in parallel with Armature winding

Ans: Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding

8. A 0-10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 5mA in a circuit; its bottom control spring snaps out suddenly the meter will now read.
a) 5mA
b) 10mA
c) 2.5mA
d) 0

Ans: 0

9. A dc cumulatively compounded motor delivers rated load torque at rated speed. If series field is short circuited, then the armature current and speed will
a) Both increases
b) Both decreases
c) Increases and decreases
d) Decreases and increases

Ans: Both increases

10. Moving coil in dynamometer wattmeter connected
a) In series with fixed coil
b) Across supply
c) In series with load
d) Across load

Ans: Across supply

11. In an induction machine, if the air gap increased
a) Speed will be reduced
b) Efficiency will be improved
c) Power factor will be lowered
d) Breakdown torque will be reduced

Ans: Power factor will be lowered

12. A CRO screen has ten divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin 314t+45 deg)is examined with a line base settings of 5 msec/div, the number of cycles of signal displayed on the screen will be
a) 0.5 cycles
b) 2.5 cycles
c) 5 cycles
d) 10 cycles

Ans: 2.5 cycles

13. A 3-phase 50HZ SCIM takes a power input of 30 KW at its full load speed of 1440 rpm. Total stator losses are 1 KW. The slip and rotor ohmic losses at full load are
a) 0.02, 600 W
b) 0.04, 580 W
c) 0.04, 1160 W
d) 0.04, 1200 W

Ans: 0.04, 1160 W

14. Thermocouple is used to measure
a) AC
b) DC
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Both

15. The two watt meters measurement the ratio of two meter readings is –(1-sqrt3):( 1+sqrt3) then the power factor is

a) 1
b) 0.866
c) 0.707
d) 0

Ans: 0.707

16. Hays bridge is used to measure___________ and Schering bridge is used to measure____________

a) Inductance, Inductance
b) Inductance, Capacitance
c) Capacitance, Inductance
d) Resistance, Capacitance

Ans: Inductance, Capacitance

17. When sine wave is given as input to Schmitt trigger then its generates

a) Sine wave
b) Saw tooth wave
c) Triangle wave
d) Square wave

Ans: Square wave

18. In Gauss Seidel method the following factors are influenced for operation

a) Acceleration factor
b) Selection of slack buss
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Selection of slack buss*

19.
i. (X’+Y’) A. Low-pass filter function
ii. (X’Y’) B. Sum
iii. (XY) C. NAND
D. Carry
E.NOR

a) i-C, ii-E, iii-D
b) i-C, ii-E, iii-B
c) i-C, ii-B, iii-D
d) i-C, ii-E, iii-A

Ans: i-C, ii-E, iii-D

20. The phase lead compensation is used to
a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot
b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot
c) Increase both rise time and overshoot
d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot

Ans: Decrease rise time and increase overshoot

21. Voltage feed back amplifier is a

a) Shunt-Shunt
b) Shunt-Series
c) Series-Shunt
d) Series- Series

Ans: Shunt-Shunt

22. In microprocessor the next instruction to be executed is stored in

a) Program Counter
b) Stack Pointer
c) Memory Pointer
d) Accumulator

Ans: Program Counter

23. The following element retains it energy after source is disconnected

a) Resister
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
d) Thermistor

Ans:

24. In series RLC circuit at resonant

a) Voltage is in phase with current
b) Current is maximum
c) Inductive reactance = Capacitive reactance
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

25.For RC low pass filter R=100 K ohms, C= 5 micro farads then lower cutt of frequency is

a) 1 K HZ
b) 0 HZ
c) 381.3 HZ
d) Infinity

Ans:

26. V=100Sin (1000t+46 deg), I=2Sin (1000t+80 deg) what are the elements in the circuit

a) R=30 ohm, L=30 mH
b) R=30 ohm, C=33.3 micro farads
c) R=40 ohm, L=30 mH
d) R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads

Ans: R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads

27. L=10 mH, I=100Sin50t 0
a)
b)
c)
d)

Ans:

28. In dielectric measurement, the dielectric loss is proportional to

a) F
b) V
c) I
d) Vsqr

Ans: Vsqr

29. G(s) = (1-s)/s(s+2) then closed loop transfer function is

a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Marginally stable
d) All

Ans: Stable

30. G(s) = (1+0.5s)/(1+s) find which type of net work it is

a) Lead net work
b) Lag net work
c) Lag - Lead net work
d) Lead - Lag net work

Ans: Lag net work

31. Temperature of electrode in Arc furnace is

a) 1000 deg
b) 1500 deg
c) 1500 deg to 3500 deg
d) 4500 deg

Ans:

32. In bode plot the point which separates the lower and upper frequencies is called

a) Critical point
b) Cut-off point
c)
d)

Ans:

33. Nyquest stability is used to determine

a) Absolute Stability
b) Relative Stability
c) Both
d) None

Ans: Both*

34. When 220V dc shunt alternator generating the voltage at rated value. If direction of rotation is reversed, then alternator will

a) Build up its voltage with same polarity
b) Build up its voltage with opposite polarity
c) No build up of voltage
d) None

Ans: No build up of voltage

35. Over lap Angle depends on_________

a) Load inductance
b) Loa capacitance
c) Source inductance
d) Source capacitance

Ans: Source inductance

36. Area under speed time curve gives

a) Time
b) Speed
c) Distance
d) None

Ans: Distance

37. The regulation of Short Transmission lines depends up on

a) Distance of line
b) Frequency
c) Power factor
d) All

Ans: Power factor

38. Which of the following plant is having lowest load factor?

a) Diesel Plant
b) Pumped storage Plant
c) Thermal Plant
d) Nuclear Plant

Ans: Diesel Plan

39. For SR latch whent the out put is undesirable

a) 0, 0
b) 1, 0
c) 0, 1
d) 1, 1

Ans: 1, 1

40. For interrupting capacitive currents which Circuit Breaker (CB) is used

a) SF6 CB
b) Oil CB
c) Vacuum CB
d) Air blast CB

Ans: Vacuum CB

41. For V/F control, when frequency is increased in transformer

a) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current decreases
b) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current increases
c) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases
d) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current increases

Ans: Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases

42. In ceiling fan the angle between auxiliary winding a main winding is

a) 0 deg
b) 90 deg
c) 180 deg
d) 360 deg

Ans: 90 deg

43. In a shaded pole motor, shaded rings are used to

a) Field flux production
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Field flux production

44. Practical method of improving string efficiency

a) Increasing crass arms length
b) Using different size of insulators
c) Using different insulator materials
d) Using of guard rings

Ans: Increasing crass arms length*

45. In which type of fault all 3-phase components are equal

a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) 3-Phase fault

Ans: 3-Phase fault

46. 11/220 KV 100 MVA transformers, the primary base voltage rating is 10 KV then secondary base KV is

a) 10 KV
b) 220 KV
c) 220/sqrt3
d)

Ans: 220/sqrt3*

47. Water hamming effect is occurs in

a) Surge tank
b) Penstock
c) Turbine
d) Reservoir

Ans: Penstock

48. Transient stability can be improved by

a) By putting series capacitor
b) By using dynamic resister
c) Auto re-closers
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

49. If sending end voltage is Vs at no-load in a transmission line then receiving end voltage is if ABCD parameters of line is given

a) Vs
b) Vs/A
c) 0
d) Infinity

Ans: Vs/A

50. Harmonics are eliminated by using

a) Skewing of rotor
b) Distribution winding
c) Short pitch winding
d) All of the above

Ans: All of the above

51. For parallel operation of transformer at no load, then load shared are equal when

a) Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating

52. In Induction motor Slip frequency of rotor current, when rotor speed is Nr. Then rotor producing slip field rotates with respect to stator is

a) Slip frequency
b) Nr
c) Ns
d) None

Ans: Ns

53. Good regulation means

a) Less fluctuations from no-load to full-load
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Less fluctuation from no-load to full-load

54. At dead short circuit at terminals of Alternator then the current I is

a) ZPF Lag
b) ZPF lead
c) Unity power factor
d) 0.8 Power factor lag

Ans: ZPF Lag

55. Full scale Ammeter reading is 10 mA, Voltage across Ammeter is 100 mV. Then for 100 A measurements the power loss in the circuit is

a) 1 W
b) 10 W
c) 100 W
d) 1000 W

Ans: 10 W*

56. When Alternator excitation increases and machine is operating at lagging power factor then

a) I increase
b) I decreases
c) No effect on current
d) None

Ans: I increase

57. Flue gases coming out from furnace is first going through

a) Turbine
b) Economizer
c) Air pre-heater
d) Chimney

Ans: Economizer

58. Two alternators rated are 200 KW at 4% regulation, 400 KW 5% regulation operating in parallel at 50HZ , when supply 600 KW the new frequency is

a) 50
b) 49
c) 51.3
d) 47.7

Ans: 47.7

59. Va and Vb are negative sequence component voltages the difference angle between Va and Vb with respect to Va is

a) 240
b) 120
c) 180
d) 360

Ans: 120

60. 4-Quadrent operation of chopper I is positive but V is may be positive are negative operates in which quadrant

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4

Ans: 1 and 4

61. Heat convection, radiation, and conduction all are takes place in

a) Ice
b) Boiler
c) Refrigerator
d) Flue gases in pipe

Ans:

62. When moving iron meter is used to measure d.c current what is the disadvantage

a) It calibration in rms value
b)
c)
d)

Ans:

63. When maximum power transfer to load is

a) 20 W
b) 50 W
c) 100W
d) 0W

Ans: 0W

64. Find Zbus Parameters

a) Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm
b)
c)
d)

Ans: Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm

65. Find Z11 and Z12

a) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
b) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 5 ohm
c) Z11=5 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
d) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 3 ohm

Ans:

66. Current in 5 ohm resister is

a) 10 A
b) -10 A
c) 5 A
d) -5 A

Ans: -10 A

67. Find I in the circuit at t=0+

a) 2 A
b) 5 A
c) 7 A
d) 10 A

Ans:

68. Find voltage across inductor at t=0+

a) 0 V
b) 2.5 V
c) 5 V
d) 10 V

Ans: 5 V

69. This wave is applied to the PMMC meter, meter reads

a) 0 V
b) 3 V
c) 2 V
d) 1 V

Ans: 1 V

70. Find Vab

a) Zero
b) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
c) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
d) None

Ans:

71. Find E in the circuit

a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) None

Ans: None

72. Vab is reference then angle between Vab and Ib is

a) -15 deg
b) 240 deg
c) 180 deg
d) -45 deg

Ans: -15 deg*

63. When maximum power transfer to load is
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 20 W
b) 50 W
c) 100W
d) 0W
Ans: 0W
64. Find Zbus Parameters
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm
65. Find Z11 and Z12
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
b) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 5 ohm
c) Z11=5 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
d) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 3 ohm
Ans:
66. Current in 5 ohm resister is
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 10 A
b) -10 A
c) 5 A
d) -5 A
Ans: -10 A
67. Find I in the circuit at t=0+
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 2 A
b) 5 A
c) 7 A
d) 10 A
Ans: 2 A
68. Find voltage across inductor at t=0+
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 0 V
b) 2.5 V
c) 5 V
d) 10 V
Ans: 5 V
69. This wave is applied to the PMMC meter, meter reads
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 0 V
b) 3 V
c) 2 V
d) 1 V
Ans: 1 V
70. Find Vab
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) Zero
b) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
c) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
d) None
Ans:
71. Find E in the circuit
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) None
Ans: None
72. Vab is reference then angle between Vab and Ib is
Click Here to Show Diagram
a) -15 deg
b) 240 deg
c) 180 deg
d) -45 deg
Ans: -15 deg*

2010-02-26T20:09:00.002+05:30

2010-02-26T20:09:00.001+05:30

2010-02-26T20:08:00.002+05:30

2010-02-26T20:08:00.001+05:30

2010-02-26T20:07:00.002+05:30

2010-02-26T20:07:00.001+05:30

2010-02-26T20:06:00.002+05:30

2010-02-26T20:06:00.001+05:30

2010-02-26T20:05:00.000+05:30

2010-02-26T19:44:00.002+05:30

POWER SYSTEMS

2010-02-25T13:51:00.000+05:30

POWER SYSTEMS

Q.A wave will not experience any reflection when impedance of line is equal to

a surge impedance
b load impedance
c >surge impedance
d
Ans: surge impedance

Q.if the length of a wire is increased what happens to its resistance

a increases linearly
b increases exponentially

Q.for a current carrying coil if the current is doubled then the field strength is

a doubled
b halved
c increased 4 times

Q.a capacitor of 10 micro farads is charged thruogh a resistor of 10 ohms and a 6 V battery. Calculate the time taken by the capacitor to charge to its maxm value.

a 1 sec
b 100 sec
c 0.1 sec
d 10 sec

Q.what current is drawn by a 10 W lamp connected to a 220 V,60 Hz source.

a 1 A
b 0.5 A
c 0.045 A
d 0.01 A

Ans: 0.045

Q.At present how many HVDC lines are there in india?

a none
b one
c two
d more than two

Q.What is the distance between the EHV lines and earth?

a 8m
b 11m
c 18m
d 15m

Q.On no load in EHV lines what is the relation between receinving and sending end voltage?

a receiving end voltage > sending end voltage
b receiving end voltage < sending end voltage
c receiving end voltage = sending end voltage
d none

Ans: receiving end voltage > sending end voltage

Q.What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line?

a 400 MW
b 400 KW
c 1600 MW
d 1600 KW

Ans: 400 MW

Q.What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line with surge impedance given as 160 ohms

a 1000 MW
b 1000 KW
c 256 MW
d 256 KW

Ans: 1000 MW

Q.Where is the hydel power plant located in following places?

a Raamagundam
b Tarapur
c Kalpakam
d Srisailam

Ans: Raamagundam

Q.self GMD is used in the calculation of_______

a inductance only
b inductance and capacitance
c capacitance only
d none

Ans: inductance only

Q.What is the GMD if the distance between the lines are 6m,6m,12m?

a 7.55m
b 6m
c 12m
d 8.56m

Ans: 7.55m

Q.Zero sequence currents doesn't exist in the following fault

a L-G
b L-L
c L-L-G
d L-L-L-G

Ans: L-L

Q.To avoid arcing connect sutable value of ________ in earthing.

a capacitance
b indunctance
c resistance
d susceptance

Ans: indunctance

Q.In the following type of conductors the corona is minimum

a circular
b stranded
c helical
d rectamgular

Ans:circular

Q.At what frequency corona loss is more?

a 50Hz
b 60Hz
c 25Hz
d 100Hz

Ans: 100HZ

Q.What is the line current of a circuit when the current transformer of 1000:5 rating measures 4Amperes?

a 5000 A
b 1000 A
c 400 A
d 800A

Ans: 800A

Q.If the time delay of relay with TMS setting 0.1 is 10 sec, then what is the time delaty when the TMS setting is changed to 0.5

a 2 sec
b 20 sec
c 100 sec
d 5 sec

Ans: 5 sec

Q.In distribution lines_____

a X/R<0.1
b X/R>10
c X/R<1
d X/R<0.01

Ans: X/R<1

Q.In EHV lines _____

a X/R=10
b X/R=100
c X/R>3
d X/R<3

Ans: X/R>3

Q.In wind mills the frequent problems occur in______

a mechanical system
b blades
c electrodynamic system
d electric system

Q.The machine used in windmills is______

a Alternator
b Induction generator
c Synchronous generator
d All

Ans: Induction generator

Q.Insulators in EHV lines are designed based on_____

a switching voltages
b peak voltages
c corona
d lightning voltages

Ans: switching voltages

Q.The value of restriking voltage depends on______

a inductance of line
b capacitance of line
c both
d none

Ans: both

Q.HRC fuse and circuit-breaker combination is used CB operates for

a low over-load currents
b high over-load currents
c combination is never used

Ans: low over-load currents

Q. SIL of 400 KV lines is

a 400 MW
b 400 KW
c 1600 MW
d 1600 KW

Ans: 400 MW

Q. SIL of 100 KV cable is

a 400 MW
b 400 KW
c 250 MW
d 250 KW

Ans: 250 MW

Q.reflection coefficent of current of an open ended line.

a 1
b -1
c 2
d -2

Ans: -1

Q.Positive sequence terminal voltage is zero in

a L-L
b L-L-G
c L-G
d L-L-L

Ans: L-L-L

Q.Most economical load in underground cable is

a less than surge impedance
b equal to surge impdance
c more than surge impedence
d any load

Ans: less than surge impedance

Q.The impedance of a lossless transmission line is

a v(L/C)
b L/C
c 1/vLC
d 1/LC

Q.Zsc =100? Zoc =1? then Zo is

a 1
b 10
c 100
d 0.1

Ans: 10

Q.Normal PH value of water used in thermal power station is

a 7
b 2
c 5
d Slightly >7

Ans: Slightly >7

Q.Maximum power transfer through line V1= 110 kv, V2= 100kv, X=22 ohm is

a 500 MW
b 500 KW
c 250 MW
d 250 KW

Ans: 500 MW

Q.Which type of power plant requires maximum expenditure

a Hydel power plants
b Nuclear power plants
c Thermal power plants
d Gas based power plants

Q.Base load of a power station stands for

a 2-4 hours/day
b 4-8 hours/day
c 8-12 hours/day
d 12-24hours/day

Ans: 12-24hours/day

Q.A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line to protect from

a surge high voltage
b Direct lightning strocks
c indirect lightnin strocks
d Switching over voltages

Ans: Direct lightning strocks

Q.A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line acts as

a acts as a phase wire
b acts as neutral
c acts as a transmission wire
d acts as ground wire

Ans: acts as ground wire

2010-02-25T13:28:00.001+05:30

ANALOG ELECTRONICS

Q. Power diode is generally made from
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Both
d) None of these

Q. When the both junction of NPN diode is reverse biased, then the diode is in which mode
a) Active
b) Cutoff
c) Saturation
d) inverted

Q. Which transistor mode gives the inverted output
a) Common Emitter
b) Common Base
c) Common Collector
d) None of these

Q. Which coupling gives the higher gain in case of amplifier
a) Capacitor coupling
b) Impedance coupling
c) Transformercoupling

Q. Which distortion is least objectionable in audio amplification
a) Phase
b) Frequency
c) Harmonic
d) Intermediation

Q. A narrow band amplifier has a band pass nearly…………of central frequency
a) 33.3%
b) 10%
c) 50%

Q. Phase shift oscillator consists
a) RL
b) RC
c) RLC

Q. Multivibrater Produces
a) Sine wave
b) Square wave
c) Smooth wave
d) sawtooth

Q. Convert the 101101 Binary number into octal no
a) 65
b) 55
c) 51
d) 45

Ans: 55

Q. 10 in BCD
a) 10100
b) 1100
c) 010111
d) None of these

Ans: None of these

Q. Which PNP device has a terminal for synchronizing purpose
a) SCS
b) Triac
c) Diac
d) SUS

Q. Addition of indium in semiconductor crystal makes
a) PNP
b) NPN

Q. Free electron exists in which band
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) Conduction band

Q. Ripple factor of half wave rectifier
a) 1.21
b) 0.48
c) 0.5

Q. Transistor that can be used in enhancement mode
a) NPN
b) UJT
c) JFET
d) MOSFET

Q. Following contributes to harmonic distortion in Amplifier
a) +Ve feedback
b) –Ve feedback
c) Defective active device

Q. High cutoff frequency
a) CB
b) CC
c) CE

Q. Which is used as data selector?
a) Encoder
b) Decoder
c) modulator
d) Demodulator

Q. Read write capable memory
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Both
d) None of these

Q.the radix or base of hexadecimal number system is -----------
a) 8
b) 16
c) 5
d) none of these

Ans: 16

Q.the no of 1’s in the binary representation of the expression 162*9+162*7+16*5+3 are
a) 10
b) 23
c) 6
d) 4

Q. the no of latches in F/F are -------
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Q.how many flip-flops are required to construct Mod -12 counter
a) 5
b) 4
c) 12
d) none

Ans: 4

Q. which logic gate has the output is compliment of its input ----------
a) OR
b) AND
c) NOT
d) X-OR

Ans: NOT

Q.no.of 2-input multiplexers needed to construct a 210 input multiplexer…….
a) 12
b) 31
c) 20
d) 16

Q.By adding inverters to the inputs and output of a AND gate we can obtain ……………
a) OR
b) AND
c) NOT
d) X-OR

Ans: X-OR

Q.how many NAND gates are needed to realize OR gate --------------
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Ans: 3

Q.which is the first integrated logic family ---------------
a) RTL
b) DTL
c) TTL
d) none of these

Q. Which logic gate has output high if and only if all inputs are low ---------?
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) X-NOR
d) AND

Ans: NAND

Q.According to Boolean algebra 1+A+B+C =
a) A
b) A+B+C
c) 1
d) none of these

Ans: 1

Q. If a=0x6db7 and b=0x2ae9 then what is the value of a”b--------------
a) binary number for 1001.1101?
b) decimal number for 19?
c) excess-3 code for 29?

Q.what is the value of A'+1 ?
a) A
b) A'
c) 1
d) none of these

Ans: 1

Q.2 in 4 bit number one bit indicates sign of the number then the locations are from
a) -8 to 8
b) -7 to 7
c) -16 to 16
d) None

Q.Avalanche photo diode is used when compared to PIN diode bcz
a)larger band width
b)high sensitivity
C)-------
d)--------

Q.some non zero DC voltage is to RC low pass circuit then the DC voltage in the output contains
a) Same as in input
b) Higher than input
c) Zero
d) Slightly increases

Q.if the output of the gate is always high then the gates applied to this logic are 0,0
a) NAND and EX-NOR
b) NAND and NOR
c) AND and X-NOR
d) OR and XOR

Ans:a

Q.Thermal Run away is not possible in FET bcz the flow of
a)minority careers
b)Transconductance
c)_____
d)none

Ans : minority careers

Q.which of the following is/are true about 1's and 2's compements:
i)In 1's complement form. 0 has two representations
ii)in 1's complement, the magnitude of lowest number is equal to the magnitude of highest number
iii)In 2's complement, 0 has two representations

a) i only
b) i and ii
c) iii only
d) all of these

Q.In the hybrid parameter model of a transistor reverse transfer voltage ratio and forward transfer current ratio are respectively given by:
a) h11 and h21
b) h12 and h11
c) h21 and h11
d) None of these

Q.The largest negative no can be represented with 8 bits in 2's compliment representation?
a)-256
b)-255
c)-127
d)-128

Ans: -128

Q. How many NAND gates required to implement AB+CD+EF
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Ans: 4

Q. Transparent latch is seen in which type of flip flop
a) SR FF
b) D FF
c) JK FF
d) D FF

Ans: D FF

Q. Odd parity generator uses which logic?
a) Digital
b) Analog
c) Sequential
d) none

Q. Which type of ADC is fastest?
a) SARC
b) Counter type
c) Intigrated type
d) Flash

ANS: Flash/Parallel

Q. Which one of the following is fastest read/writable memory?
a) PROM
b) EEPROM
c) Flash
d) none

Ans: Flash

8. In array programming which one is used
a) SISD
b) PISD
c) MISD
d) None

Q.Which one of the following has high I/p impedance
a) CC
b) CB
c) CE
d) None

Q. The maximum time allowed time for each flip flop for a mod 10 synchronous counter if each flip flop delay is 25ns.
a) 25 ns
b) 50 ns
c) 100 ns
d) none

Q. The resolution for a DAC is given by 0.4% then no. of bits of DAC is
a) 8- bits
b) 16- bits
c) 32- bits
d) none

Ans: 8- bits

41) The chip capacity is 256 bits, then the no.of chips required to build 1024 B memory Is
a) 32
b) 16
c) 15
d) 4

Q. Which of the following are correct?
1)A flip-flop is used to store 1-bit of information
2)Race around condition occurs in JK flip flop when both the inputs are 1
3)Master slave flip flop is used to store 2 bits of information
4)A transparent latch consists of a D- flip flop

a) 1,2,3
b) 1,3,4
c) 1,2,4
d) 2,3,4

Ans: 1,2,4

Q. output resistance of ideal OP AMP is
a) 0
b) 1
c) infinite
d) very high

ANS: 0

Q. CMRR of an OP AMP is given as 80db and Ad is 20000.Value of Acm will be
a) 4
b) 8
c) 2
d) 1

Ans: 2

Q.Si,Ge lie in ........block of periodic table
a) III
b) V
c) IV A
d) IV B

Ans: IV A

Q.to obtain 10 mV resolution on 5 V range how many bit DAC is to be used
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32

Q.% resolution of a 10 bit ADC
a) 1.588%
b) 0.392%
c) 0.0978%
d) 0.0244%

Ans: 0.0978%

Q.Efficiency of half wave rectifier
a) 45%
b) 50%
c) 86%
d) 100%

Ans: 45%

Basic Electrical Engineering By C.L. Wadhwa

2010-02-12T09:10:00.002+05:30

1200 DISCOM Jobs soon

2010-01-29T08:39:00.001+05:30

Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010

2010-01-07T12:18:00.002+05:30

Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010

Electric Circuits:

Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, star/ delta
transformation; electromagnetic induction; mutual induction; ac fundamentals;
harmonics, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis,
resonance, ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and
Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits, power
measurement .

Electrical Machines:

Single phase transformer - equivalent circuit, phasor diagram,
tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers - connections, parallel
operation; auto-transformer; DC machines - types, windings, generator/ motor
characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors;three phase induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines - performance, regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications .

Power Systems:

Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models andperformance; underground cable, string insulators; corona; distribution systems; per-unit
quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power
factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles
of over-current, differential and distance protection; protection of alternator, transformer,
transmission lines neutral earthing, solid state relays and digital protection; circuit
breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion
Utilization & Control Systems: Principles of feedback; transfer function; block
diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Nyquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag,
lead and lead-lag compensation; Heating - resistance, induction, dielectric; Welding –
spot, seam and butt; Electric traction – speed-time curves, tractive effort;

Measurements:

Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and
induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power
factor; digital voltmeters and multi-meters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Qmeters;oscilloscopes;

Analog and Digital Electronics:

Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers -biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers;Combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; A/D and D/A converters; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.Power Electronics and Drives: Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors,triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs - static characteristics and principles of operation;triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters - fully controlled and half controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basic concepts of adjustable speed dc and ac drives.

Model Question Paper

The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below. Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
Candidates have to bring their own pencils and erasers.

1.The armature of a d.c machine is made of
(A) Silicon steel (B) Wrought iron (C) Cast steel (D) Soft iron

2.The main drawbacks of d.c shunt generator is that
(A)Shunt circuit has high resistance (B) Generator voltage is small (C) Terminal voltage drops considerably with load (D) It is expensive

3.Transformers usually transfer electrical energy from primary to secondary with change in
(A) Frequency (B) Voltage (C) Power (D) Time period

TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED NOTIFICATION RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF Assistant Engineer(Elec.,/Telecom / Civil)

2010-01-07T12:15:00.001+05:30

TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED
NOTIFICATION
RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF Assistant Engineer(Elec.,/Telecom / Civil)

Applications are invited On-line through APTRANSCO WEBSITE www.aptransco.gov.in
and http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in from 05.01.2010 to 25.01.2010 (to 23.01.2010 for
payment of fees) from eligible Engineering Graduates for filling up the following
vacancies on regular basis in APTRANSCO--Engineering Service.
The AP Transco has dispensed with the sale of applications by post/ through
Sales Counter of AP Transco. The desirous eligible Candidates may apply ON-LINE by
satisfying themselves with the terms and conditions of this recruitment.
B.L- Backlog; G.R- General recruitment;
These vacancies are subject to variation at the time of recruitment based on the
necessity.
Percentage of reservation: BC-25% + 4% Muslim reservation subject to
orders of Government from time to time.
SC- 15%, ST-6%, PH-3%
33 1/3 % reservation for women is applicable as
per rules.
Detailed notification with break-up of vacancies, Scale of Pay, Age,
Community, Educational Qualifications and other instructions along with syllabus for
the written examination may be viewed at AP Transco website
(www.aptransco.gov.in) from 05.01.2010.
NOTE:
1. The applicants are required to go through the detailed notification and decide
themselves as to their eligibility for this recruitment carefully before applying and
enter the particulars completely online.
2. Candidates are required to retain a photocopy of application form with
Reference ID for future reference.
3. Candidates have to submit application only through online mode well in
advance of the last date to avoid last day rush.
4. Hand written / typed / Photostat copies/ printed application form will not be
entertained by AP Transco by post or in person.
PTO
Asst. Engineer/
Electrical
Asst. Engineer/
Telecom
Asst. Engineer/
Civil
Name of the
Zone
B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total
Visakapatnam 10 37 47 1 - 1 - 2 2
Vijayawada 7 39 46 3 - 3 - 2 2
Kadapa 12 35 47 2 - 2 - 2 2
Hyderabad 12 35 47 2 1 3 1 2 3
Warangal 8 38 46 2 - 2 - 2 2
Total 49 184 233 10 1 11 1 10 11
: 2:
FEE:
Each applicant must pay Rs. 150/- (Rupees One hundred and Fifty Only) towards
Application Processing Fee.
i) Applicants under General category must also pay RS.350/- (Three
Hundred and Fifty ONLY) towards Examination Fee. (Applicants
belonging to SC/ST/BC Communities and PH need not pay this fee).
ii) Candidates belonging to States other than Andhra Pradesh will be
considered in general category only and are required to pay the aboveprescribed
fee.
Mode of Payment of Fee: The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee as per the
notification in any one of the A.P. Online centers and obtain Fee paid receipt with
Journal Number( 12 digit) in the first instance. Applicants can also pay the fee
through AP Online portal.
Submission of Application: After payment of Fee, the Candidate has to logon to the
website http:// www.aptransco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or
directly visit http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in to view the detailed notification, User
Guide and Application Form. The applicants have to invariably fill all the
relevant fields in the Application. Immediately on submission of application
the Applicant will get an acknowledgement in the form of a downloadable pdf
document.
Starting date for Payment of Fee and Application submission is 05.01.2010.
Last date for payment of Fee at AP Online is 23.01.2010
Last date for submission of Application is 25.01.2010 up to 7 P.M
Place: Hyderabad CHIEF GENERAL MANAGER
Date : (HRD &Trg.)
:3:
INSTRUCTIONS
I. Instructions for Scanning of Photograph with Signature
Photo width= 3.5cm
Photo Height= 4.5cm
Signature Space = 1.5 cm
1. Paste the Photo on any white paper as per the above required dimensions. Sign in the
Signature Space provided. Ensure that the signature is within the box.
2. Scan the above required size containing photograph and signature. Please do not scan
the complete page.
3. The entire image (of size 3.5 cm by 6.0 cm) consisting of the photo along with the
signature is required to be scanned and stored in *.jpg format on local machine.
4. Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more that 50KB.
5. If the size of the file is more than 50 KB, then adjust the settings of the scanner such
as the dpi resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning.
6. The candidate has to sign in full in the box provided. Since the signature is proof of
identity, it must be genuine and in full; initials are not sufficient. Signature in CAPITAL
LETTERS is not permitted.
7. The signature must be signed only by the candidate and not by any other person.
8. The signature will be used to put on the Hall Ticket and wherever necessary. If the
candidate’s signature on the answer script, at the time of the examination, does not
match the signature on the Hall Ticket, the candidate will be disqualified.
Sample Photo and Signature
e.g. The Technical Specifications of the sample scanned image shown above are:
• Size of the file < 50 KB
• Dpi setting = 200 dpi
• True Colour
The candidate has to upload his/her Photo with Signature in the prescribed format by
clicking on the browse button at the time of submission of application form.
II. ELIGIBILITY:
1.AGE: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.07.09.
Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years in respect of
SC/ST/BC candidates and up to 10 years in respect of
P.H candidates.
2.EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS:
a) Assistant Engineers/Electrical: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E,
Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent qualification in the
similar discipline from any recognized University in India.
b) Assistant Engineers/Telecom: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, in
Telecommunications/Electronics/ Electronics and Communication or
equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any recognized
University in India.
c) Assistant Engineers/Civil: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, Civil
Engineering or equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any
recognized University in India.
III.SELECTION PROCEDURE:
i) The selection of candidates for appointment will be made 100% on Written
examination.
ii) Only those candidates who qualify in the written examination by being ranked
high, community wise will be called for verification of Original Certificates in 1:2
ratio.
(iii) The minimum qualifying marks in the written test for the above selection
process shall be as follows:
OC - 40%
BC - 35%
SC/ST - 30%
Or as per Rules
Note: Mere securing minimum qualifying marks doesn’t vest, any right to a
candidate for being called for verification of original certificates.
IV. Details of Written Examination:
i) Syllabus: The syllabus for the written examination is placed at Annexure I.
ii) Hall Tickets: The hall tickets will be placed on the website seven days prior
to the date of examination. The candidate has to down load the Hall ticket from the
website only. Hall tickets will not be sent to the candidates by post.
iii) Date of examination:
(a) The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/ Elec., will
be held on 07.02.2010 at 10 AM to 12 Noon.
(b) The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/Telecom
and Civil will be held on 07.02.2010 at 2 PM to 4 PM.
iv) Examination Centers: The written examination for recruitment of
Assistant Engineer/ Elec., /Telecom/Civil will be held at different centers
located only in Hyderabad & Secunderabad.
v). Instructions to Candidates at the time of Written Examination:
1. The test is of two ours duration. The date and time are indicated on the Hall
ticket. Candidates should reach the test center in time. Candidates will be
allowed in to the examination hall half an hour before the scheduled starting
time. Candidates will not be allowed into the examination hall after the test has
started and will not be permitted to leave examination hall before the closure of
test time under any circumstances.
2. The test will be of objective type with multiple-choice questions with only one
answer being correct among the four alternatives suggested.
3. A separate O M R (Optical mark Reader) answer sheet will be provided to the
candidates. The candidate has to indicate his response to each question by
darkening the appropriate bubble with a HB Pencil.
4. The candidate has to bring a good quality HB Pencil, eraser, sharpener and
blue/black pen or ball point pen to the examination hall.
5. The candidate has to follow meticulously all the instructions given on the
question paper booklet and OMR Answer Sheet, else his answer sheet may not be
valued.
6. Usage of Calculators/mathematical tables is not permitted. Candidates should
not bring cell phones or any other electronic gadgets to the examination hall.
V. TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICE:
1. Scale of Pay: Rs.13905-575-15055-670-18405-770-21485.
2. Training cum Probation: The candidates appointed to the post shall be placed
on Training-cum-Probation for a period of 2 years. During the period of Trainingcum-
Probation he/she will be paid the minimum of the pay scale along with
admissible allowances.
3. Place of posting: The candidates appointed shall be required to work at the
substations of APTRANSCO for a minimum period of 3 years.
4. The candidate will be governed by the rules and regulations applicable or as
framed by the AP Transco and as amended from time to time. The Tripartite
Agreement entered into between the APSEB, govt of A.P and the Employees
Associations is not applicable to these candidates and they shall at no stage be
entitles to claim any right what so ever arising out of the said Tripartite Agreement.
VI. EXECUTION OF BOND :
(i) The candidates appointed will be required to execute a Bond (in Non-
Judicial stamp paper worth Rs.110/- (Rupees One hundred and ten
only) at the time of joining, to serve APTRANSCO for a MINIMUM
period of 5 Years after completion of Training-cum-Probation period
(2 years).
(ii) During the above bond period the candidates will deposit his/her
original certificates such as Degree, date of birth and community, etc
with APTRANSCO. The Certificates so deposited with APTRANSCO shall
not be returned during the above bond period.
(iii) The Candidate who leaves the APTRANSCO service during the
Training-cum-Probation period shall refund the emoluments received
by him/her plus Rs.30, 000/- (Rupees Thirty thousand only) by way of
liquidated damages.
(iv) The Candidate who leaves the APTRANSCO service without serving a
minimum period of 5 years after completion of Training-cum-Probation
period shall have to pay a sum of Rs.60, 000/-(Rupees Sixty Thousand
Only) by way of liquidated damages to the Corporation.
VII. HOW TO APPLY:
HOW TO UPLOAD THE APPLICATION FORM:
i) The Applicants have to read the User Guide for Online Submission of Applications
and then proceed further.
I Step:- Payment of Fee: The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee as per
the notification in any one of the A.P. Online centers and obtain Fee paid receipt
with Journal Number in the first instance. Applicants can also pay the fee through
APOnline portal.
II Step:- Submission of Application: After payment of Fee, the Candidate has to
logon to the website http:// www.aptransco.gov.in and click on APPLY
ONLINE link or directly visit http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in to view the detailed
notification, User Guide and Application Form. The applicants have to provide
payment details (journal number and date) and upload the scanned copy of
passport size photograph with signature (see instructions for scanning and
uploading photograph with signature) and then invariably fill all the relevant
fields in the Application. Immediately on submission of application, applicant
will get an acknowledgement in the form of a downloadable pdf document.
ii) Hand written/ Typed/ Photostat copies/ Outside printed Application Form
will not be accepted and liable for rejection.
iii) Only applicants willing to serve anywhere in the Andhra Pradesh should apply.
iv) For any problems related to Online submission and downloading of Hall-Tickets
please contact Help Desk No. 9246290436 (Call Time: 9.30 A.M to 1.00 P.M &
1.30 P.M to 5.30 P.M) or log on to http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in click on to complaint
box.
VIII. FEE
i) Each applicant must pay Rs. 150/- (Rupees One hundred
and Fifty Only) towards Application Processing Fee.
ii) Applicants under General category must also pay RS.350/-
(Three Hundred and Fifty ONLY) towards Examination Fee.
(Applicants belonging to SC/ST/BC Communities and PH need not pay
this fee).
NOTE:
1. AP Transco is not responsible, for any discrepancy in submitting through Online.
The applicants are therefore, advised to strictly follow the instructions and User
guide in their own interest.
2. Applicant must compulsorily fill-up all relevant fields of application and submit
application through website only.
3. Incomplete/incorrect application form will be summarily rejected. AP Transco
under any circumstances will not entertain the information if any furnished by the
candidate subsequently. Applicants should be careful in filling-up of the application
form at the time of submission. If any lapse is detected during the scrutiny, the
candidature will be rejected even though he/she comes through the final stage of
recruitment process or even at a later stage.
4. Before payment of fee, submission of application form, the candidates should
carefully ensure his/her eligibility for this notification. No relevant column of the
application form should be left blank; otherwise application form will not be
accepted.
5. The applications received online in the prescribed proforma available in the
website and within the time shall only be considered and the AP Transco will not be
held responsible for any kind of discrepancy.
6. Applicants must compulsorily upload his/her own scanned photo with signature in
jpg format only.
General
• Candidates belonging to States other than Andhra Pradesh will be
considered in general category only and are required to pay the aboveprescribed
fee.
• The candidate should not furnish any false tampered, fabricated
information or suppress any material information while filling up the
application form.
• Candidates called for verification of certificates will be required to furnish
documentary proof in evidence of the following as and when called for.
a) Age: Proof of age as recorded in SSC certificate or
equivalent.
b) Qualification of BE/B. Tech/AMIE or equivalent from any
recognized University in India.
c) Permanent Community certificate issued by MRO in original or
Original caste certificate issued by Revenue Officer not less than
the rank of MRO issued on or after 01-07-2008 in respect of
SC/ST & BC candidates clearly indicating the Sub-Caste and
group.
d) Physically Handicapped certificate indicating the minimum 40%
of disability issued by District Medical Board.
e) Study Certificate / Residential Certificate issued by the Officer of
the Revenue Department not below the rank of Tahsildar in
independent charge of Mandal as the case may be .
• Candidates will be required to appear for written test as and when
conducted at their own cost.
• Admission for written test or calling the qualified candidates in the
written test to furnish documentary proof does not confer any right for
appointment.
• The degrees awarded by the Universities/institutions that are
recognized by the U.G.C, D.E.C (Under IGNOU) and AICTE as the case
shall only be considered.
• The decision of the Selection Committee/AP TRANSCO is final in
selection and allotment of candidates.
IX. BREAK UP OF VACANCIES
Consequent to implementation of the spirit of A. P. Public Employment
(Organization of Local Cadres & Regulation of Direct Recruitment) order, 1975 which
popularly known as “The Presidential Order” in APTRANSCO, the break-up of
vacancies, Zone-wise, are as follows:
COMMUNITY WISE BREAK-UP OF VACANCIES:
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
ZONE
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - 2 - 1 - 1 - - - - - - 2 1 - 1 1(H.H) 1(V.H) 10
VSP
G.R 11 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 37
B.L - 2 - - - - - - - - - - 2 1 1 - - 1(V.H) 7
VJA G.R 11 6 2 - 3 1 - - 3 1 2 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 39
B.L - 5 1 - - 1 - - - - - - 2 2 - - - 1(V.H) 12
KDP
G.R 10 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 3 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 35
B.L - 4 - - - 1 - - 2 1 - - 1 1 - - 1(H.H) 1(V.H) 12
HYD
G.R 10 6 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 3 2 2 1 1
(Orth.H)
- 35
B.L - 3 1 - - - - - 1 1 1 - - - - - - 1(V.H) 8
WGL
G.R 11 7 2 - 3 1 - - 2 1 1 - 4 2 2 1 1
(Orth. H)
- 38
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (TELECOM)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
Zones
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1(V.H) 1
VSP
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - 1 - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 3
VJA
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - - - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1(V.H) 2
KDP
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 2
HYD
G.R 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1(V.H) 2
WGL
G.R - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Asst. Engineer/
Electrical
Asst. Engineer/
Telecom
Asst. Engineer/
Civil
Name of the
Zone
B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total B.L G.R Total
Visakapatnam 10 37 47 1 - 1 - 2 2
Vijayawada 7 39 46 3 - 3 - 2 2
Kadapa 12 35 47 2 - 2 - 2 2
Hyderabad 12 35 47 2 1 3 1 2 3
Warangal 8 38 46 2 - 2 - 2 2
Total 49 184 233 10 1 11 1 10 11
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (CIVIL)
OC BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E SC ST PH
Zone
s
Posts
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W
Total
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
VSP
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
VJA
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
KDP
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1
(VH)
1
HYD
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
WGL
G.R - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - 2
B.L - Backlog; G.R - General recruitment; G – General; W - Women
X ZONAL/ LOCAL:
The select list will be drawn into two parts. The first part will comprise 40% of the
posts consisting of combined merit list of local as well as non-locals and the
remaining second part will comprise the balance 60% of the posts consisting of locals
only and the posts will be filled only following the rule of reservation.
a) The candidates will be selected and allotted to Zones/Sub Stations as per
their Rank in the merit list and as per zonal preferences for allotment of non-local
candidates against vacancies available. Selection shall be made on State Wide merit,
in respect of non-local candidates and allotment of Zones shall be made as per the
preference given by candidates against the actual vacancies.
b) While the Corporation calls for preference of candidates in respect of zones in
the application form, it is hereby clarified that the said preferences are only
indicative for being considered to the extent possible but not binding. Therefore, the
APTRANSCO has the power to assign a successful candidate to any of the notified
posts in the Zone in respect of non-local candidates, for which he/she is considered
to be qualified and eligible, subject to fulfilling the selection criteria. Mere claim of
preference for any zone for allotment against vacancy does not confer a right to
selection for that Zone in particular or any Zone in general.
RESERVATION TO LOCAL CANDIDATES:
Reservation to the local candidates is applicable as provided in the Rules and as
Amended from time to time in force on the date of notification. The candidates
claiming reservation as Local candidates should obtain the required Study certificates
(from class IV to X) or Residence Certificate in the proforma only for those
candidates who have not studied in any Educational Institutions as the case may be .
The relevant certificates may be got ready with authorized signature and kept with
the candidates as and when required.
DEFINITION OF LOCAL CANDIDATE:
(i) ‘’LOCAL CANDIDATE” means a candidate for direct recruitment to any post in
relation to that Local areas where he/she has studied in Educational
Institution(s) for not less than four consecutive academic years prior to and
including the year in which he/she appeared for S.S.C. or its equivalent
examination. If however, he/she has not studied in any Educational
Institution during the above four years period, it is enough if he/she has
resided in that area which is claimed as his /her Local area during the above
said period.
(ii) In case the candidate does not fall within the scope of the (i) above it will be
considered if he/she has studied for a period of not less than seven years
prior to and inclusive of the year in which he/she has studied for the
maximum period out of the said period of seven years AND where the period
of his/her study in two or more Local areas are equal such Local area where
he/she has studied last (in such Local area) will be taken for determining the
Local candidature. Similarly, if he/she has not studied during the above said
period in any Educational Institution(s) the place of residence during the
above period will be taken into consideration and Local candidature determine
with reference to the maximum period of residence or in the case of equal
period where he/she has resided last.
(iii) If the claim of Local candidature is based on study, the candidate is required
to produce a certificate from the Educational Institution(s) where he/she has
studied during the said 4/7 year period .If, however, it is based on residence,
a certificate should be obtained from an officer of the Revenue Department
not below the rank of a Tahsildhar in independent charge of a Mandal
(iv) If, however, a candidate has resided in more than one Mandal during the
relevant 4/7 years period but with in the same District or Zone as the case
may, be separate certificates from the Tahsildhars exercising jurisdiction have
to be obtained in respect of different areas.
NOTE:
A. Single certificate, whether of study or Residence would suffice for
enabling the candidate to apply as a “LOCAL CANDIDATE “.
B. Resident certificate will not be accepted, if a candidate has studied
in any Educational Institution up to S.S.C or equivalent
examination, such candidates have to produce study certificates
invariably.
C. Each of the following Zones comprises the Districts mentioned
against each Zone
Zones Districts
Visakhapatanam
(VSP)
Srikakukam, Vizianagaram
Visakapatnam. East & West Godavari
Vijayawada
(VJA)
Krishna, Guntur, Prakasham
& Nellore
Kadapa
(KDP)
Chitoor, Kadapa, Anantapur and
Kurnool.
Hyderabad
(HYD)
Hyderabad, Rangareddy,
Mahboobnagar, Medak and Nalgonda,
Warangal
(WGL)
Adilabad, Karimnagar, Warangal
Khammam and Nizamabad
Presidential Order is not applicable to Corporate Head Office.
ANNEXURE - I
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Electrical) 2010
Electric Circuits: Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, star/ delta
transformation; electromagnetic induction; mutual induction; ac fundamentals;
harmonics, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis,
resonance, ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and
Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits, power
measurement .
Electrical Machines: Single phase transformer - equivalent circuit, phasor diagram,
tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers - connections, parallel
operation; auto-transformer; DC machines - types, windings, generator/ motor
characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors;
three phase induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and
speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines - performance,
regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and
applications .
Power Systems: Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models and
performance; underground cable, string insulators; corona; distribution systems; per-unit
quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power
factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles
of over-current, differential and distance protection; protection of alternator, transformer,
transmission lines neutral earthing, solid state relays and digital protection; circuit
breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion
Utilization & Control Systems: Principles of feedback; transfer function; block
diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Nyquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag,
lead and lead-lag compensation; Heating - resistance, induction, dielectric; Welding –
spot, seam and butt; Electric traction – speed-time curves, tractive effort;
Measurements: Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and
induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power
factor; digital voltmeters and multi-meters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Qmeters;
oscilloscopes;
Analog and Digital Electronics: Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers -
biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers;
Combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; A/D and D/A
converters; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.
Power Electronics and Drives: Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors,
triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs - static characteristics and principles of operation;
triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters - fully controlled and half
controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basic concepts of adjustable speed dc
and ac drives.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below. Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
Candidates have to bring their own pencils and erasers.
1.The armature of a d.c machine is made of
(A) Silicon steel (B) Wrought iron (C) Cast steel (D) Soft
iron
A
B
C D
2.The main drawbacks of d.c shunt generator is that
(A)Shunt circuit has high resistance (B) Generator voltage is
small (C) Terminal voltage drops considerably with load
(D) It is expensive
A B C
D
3.Transformers usually transfer electrical energy from primary
to secondary with change in
(A) Frequency (B) Voltage (C) Power (D) Time period
A B
C D
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Civil) 2010
1. Strength of Materials: Simple stresses and strains. Hooke’s law. Stress-strain curve
for mild steel, elastic constants, compound bars, temperature stresses, strain energy,
resilience, impact loading, SFD and BMD for simple cantilever and overhanging beams.
Centre of gravity and moment of inertia, bending and shear stress distributions. Theory
of pure torsion, helical spring, thin and thick cylinders, analysis of trusses by method of
joints and method of sections, combined direct and bending stresses, column and struts,
deflection of beams-double integration, moment area and conjugate beam methods.
2. Reinforced Concrete: Basic reinforcing materials, tests on cement and aggregates.
Structural concrete and its grades, workability tests and concrete mix design. Singly
and doubly reinforced beams, working stress design of rectangular and flanged beams
shear bond, development length and torsion in beams, one-way and two-way slabs,
axially and eccentrically loaded columns, isolated and combined footings. Basic
concepts of limit state design and its applications to the design of beams, slabs and
columns.
3.Steel Structures: Grades of steels, design of simple and compound beams, riveted and
welded joints, riveted and welded connections’-eccentric framed and seated, simple and
compound columns, slab and gusseted bases, grillage foundations, roof trusses, plastic
analysis – plastic bending of beams, shape factor, plastic analysis theorems, and
analysis of fixed, propped cantilever beams by static and kinematic methods.
4.Fluid Mechanics & Machinery : Fluid properties, pressure measurements, manometers,
forces on plane and curved surfaces, center of pressure, principle of buoyancy, stability
of floating and submerged bodies, metacentre, Kinematics of fluid flow, equation of
continuity. Euler’s and Bernoulli’s equations, Impulse-momentum, flow measuring
device s – orifices and mouth pieces, notches and weirs, flow through pipes, open
channel flow, impact of jets – stationery and moving vanes (flat and curved), radial
vanes, hydraulic turbines, pumps and machinery.
5.Soil Mechanics: Physical properties of soils, classification and identification,
permeability, capillarity, seepage, compaction, shear strength, Earth pressure, slope
stability.
Foundation Engineering : Stress distribution in soils, bearing capacity, settlement
analysis, pile foundation, Coffer dams, Caissons, Dewatering, Bracing for
excavations, site investigations, New mark charts, Machine foundation.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below.
Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall. Candidates have to bring
their own pencils and erasers.
1. The maximum value of Poisson’s ratio for any material is
( a) 1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.1
A
O
B

C
O
D
O
2. The modular ratio for M 20 grade concrete is
(a) 13.33 (b) 18.67 (c) 20 (d) 10
A
O
B

C
O
D
O
3.The maximum permissible deflection for a simply supported
steel beam of span 6.5 m is
(a) 5 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 30 mm
A
O
B
O
C

D
O
Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco
Assistant Engineer (Telecom) 2010
Network Analysis : Kirchoff’s Laws, RC, RL & RLC Circuits, Initial conditions,
Energy, Power, Instantaneous, max, average, RMS values of alternating currents, Phaser
representation, transient and steady state analysis, Total response. Network analysis
using Laplace Transforms, properties of Laplace transforms.
Fourier Series: Continuous and discrete Fourier Transforms, z-transforms. Applications
to signal Analysis.
Convolution. Network Theorems and Applications. Two Port Parameters, Series, Parallel
and Cascade connections of two port networks, Z, Y, ABCD Parameters, Network
Functions, Poles and Zeros. Driving point and Transfer Functions, Image Parameters,
Conventional LP, HP, BP, Band Stop Filters. Composite Filters, T, & Lattice
Networks, Attenuators and Equalizers.
Electronic Devices & Circuits: PN Junction, PNP, NPN Transistors. Biasing, Tunnel
Diode, FET, UJT,SCR Characteristics, Various CB,CE,CC transistor Amplifiers –
Analysis & Performance. RC coupled and push pull amplifiers, compensation techniques,
Feedback, Negative feedback, oscillator Circuits, Phase Shift Oscillator.
Digital Circuits: Wave Shaping, multivibrators, Sweep Generators, Counters, logic
Gates and Circuits, Number Systems, Codes, Error Detection and Correction. Sequential
Circuits, Integrated Circuits OP Amps-Applications, IC Comparator Circuits, A/D, D/A
Converters.
Linear Control System: Open loop, Closed loop system, Signal Flow Graphs, Stability,
Routh – Hurwitz and Nyquist Criterion, Bode plots, Gain-phase Margin, Lead-Lag
compensation Techniques.
Transmission Lines & Antennas: Transmission line equation, Primary and Secondary
Parameters, Propagation constants, Open and Short Circuited Lines, Standing Waves,
Reflection Coefficient, VSWR, Line as Circuit element, Impedance Matching.
Maxwell’s equations and Field Theory: Various Laws & Theorems in
Electromagnetism, Plane Waves, Boundary Conditions, Concept of Radiation, Half wave
Dipole, Antenna Arrays, Communication Antennas – performance Characteristics.
Wave guides and Components: Reciprocal & non Reciprocal Wave guide components,
Couplers, Tees, Microwave Sources, Microwave Communication, Link Design.
Basics of Micro Processors & Micro Controllers: Architecture and Assemblers,
memory Devices.
Communication systems: Modulation, All types of Modulation techniques, SNR,
Analog & Digital Communication techniques, multiplexes, Demodulators, Radio
Receivers & Transmitters – Characteristics & Basics of Fibre Optics Communication and
Satellite Communication Systems.
Model Question Paper
The question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions to
be answered on the OMR answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours. A few questions are
given as a model below.
Note: Calculators are not allowed into the Examination Hall. Candidates have to bring
their own pencils and erasers.
1.For reciprocal network, ABCD parameters are related as
(A ) A = D (B) B = C (C) AD – BC = 1 (D) AD + BC
= 1
A
O
B
O
C

D
O
2. For a short circuited transmission line, reflection coefficient is
equal to
(A) zero (B) infinity (C) -1 (D) +1
A
O
B
O
C

O

BSNL JTO

2009-12-09T00:47:00.000+05:30

1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None

2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above

3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

4. In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole

concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)

5. When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms

6. A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies

7. The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming

8. A ‘trimmer’ capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) ‘Tunning up’ a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio

9. In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation

10. FET’s have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors

11. The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

12. AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode

13. When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current

14. The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25

15. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate

16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero

17. In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected

18. The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform

19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies

20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –

22. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –

23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the

Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W

24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W

25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –

26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –

28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket

29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now

doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
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30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector

at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction

31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr

32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none

34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.

36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy

38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero

39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth

40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none

41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code

42. The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12

43. The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200

44. The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points ‘r’
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2

45. In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr

46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is

47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other

components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.

48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group

49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two

steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2

50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-

51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.

52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above

53 The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA

54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor

55. Crossover distortion occurs in — amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB

56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to

—dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2

57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000

58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The

upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz

59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n

60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999

61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-

62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101

63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns

64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100

65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar

66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.

67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode

68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800

69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
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70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –
a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.

71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown

in figure
72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at – 2. The gain

margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB

74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48

75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis

76. Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and

the satellite.

77 The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero

78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power

80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker

81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse

82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b

83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite

84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave

85. Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift

86. In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode

87. PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter

88. A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect

89. LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased

90. Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading

91. 8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None

92. The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7

93. In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None

94. A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.

95. RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above

96. A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit

97. On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do

98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable

99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
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paper. solutions / answer keys coming soon!
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic

101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None

102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary ‘may’ indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request

103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above

104. The manager is usually strict but in Madhav’s case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient

105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession

106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling

107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these

108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu

109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these

110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma

111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha

112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open

113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan

114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE

115. Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

116. The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao

117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members

118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra

119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha

120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
d) 22 yards

BSNL JTO

2009-12-09T00:45:00.000+05:30

1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency series circuit is-
a.) Inductive
b.) Capacitive
c. )Resistive
d.)None
2. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (Ohm –1 m-1) -
a.) 107
b. )105
c. )10-4
d. )10-6
3. The output of a piezoelectric crystal has-
a. )Low amplitude and low impedance
b. )High amplitude and high impedance
c. )Low amplitude and high impedance
d.)High amplitude and low impedance
4. The time constant associated with the capacitor charging in the circuit shown in the given figure is –
a. )6ms
b. )10ms
c. )15ms
d.) 25ms
5. The Q factor of an inductor would be higher if it is made of –
a.) Thinner wire
b.) Longer wire
c.) Shorter wire
d.) Thicker wire
6. A cavity resonator can be represented by –
a.) An LC circuit
b.) An LCR circuit
c.) A lossy inductor
d.) A lossy capacitor
7. Air gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents –
a.) Core saturation
b). Hysterisis loss
c.) Flux leakage
d.) Transformer action
8. Between the plates of an air capacitor if a glass slab is slipped without moving the plate then -
a.) Its capacitance is decreased
b.) Its capacitance is increased
c.) Its capacitance is hardly affected
d. )Capacitor is discharged
9. For current to flow, a circuit must be –
a.) Isolated
b). Insulated
c.) Complete
d.) Protected
10. Human ear can detect sound intensities of the order of –
a.) 10-20 w/m2
b). 10-13 w/m2
c.) 10-6 w/m2
d.) 10-3 w/m2
11. A FET operates on –
a). Majority carriers only
b). Minority carriers only
c). Positively charged ions only
d.) None
12. An SCR can conduct for a full half cycle or any part of it –
a. )and continue conduction for other half cycle
b.) but blocks the conduction for other half cycle
c.) nothing can be said
d.) none
13. In CRT aquadag carries -
a. )aqueous solution of graphite
b. )sweep voltage
c. )secondary emission electrons
d.) none of the above

14. From the following circuit, in order to obtain a 12-v stabilized supply the input to the terminals A and B
should be -
a.)less than 12v with terminal A positive with respect to terminal B
b. )greater than 12v with B positive with respect to A
c. )less than 12v with A negative with respect to B
d. )greater than 12v with A positive with respect to B
15. When the value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 Na then the value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180c would be –
a. )8mA
b. )160 hA
c. )1mA
d. )7.84mA
16. MOSFET can operate in –
a. )Depletion mode
b. )Enhancement mode
c. )Depletion-only mode
d. )Both a & b
17. For a circuit design the very factor of an SCR, which is to be taken into account is –
a.)
d.) None

18. The functions of an oxide layer in an IC device is to –
a.) mask against diffusion or ion implant
b.) insulate the surface electrically
c.) produce a chemically stable protective layer
d.) all the above
19. One of the following bipolar transistors which has the highest current gain bandwidth product for similar geometry is –
a.) NPN germanium transistor
b.) NPN silicon transistor
c.) PNP germanium transistor
d. )PNP silicon transistor.
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20. With the increasing temperature, the electrical conductivity would –
a.) Increase in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
b.) Increase in metals but decrease in intrinsic semiconductors.
c. )Decrease in metals but increase in intrinsic semiconductors.
d. )Decrease in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
21. For the following circuit, the current X is 3A then the power delivered by the dependent current source D is –
a.) 50 watts
b) 50 watts
c. )1500 watts
d. )15000 watts
22. The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will be –
a.) 0.2A
b.) 0.4A
c.) 0.6A
d.) 0.8A

23. In the network shown in the given fig. the capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0 before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In the steady state-
a.)C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages
b.) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs
c. )C1 and C2 are discharged fully
d. ) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0
24. The equivalent circuit of a wire-wound resistor can be represented as –

25. For the fig. shown the fundamental cutset for the branch 12 is –
a. )2, 1, 5
b. )2, 6, 7, 8
c. )2, 1, 3, 4,5
d. )2, 3, 4

26. Ideally, attenuator pads should not change –
a. )voltage level
b.) impedance level
c.) power level
d.) voltage, power or impedance level
27. When the two networks are cascaded through an ideal Buffer and if tr1 and tr2 are the rise times of the two networks, then the overall delay of the two networks together will be –

28. For the network shown in the following fig. one of the following theorems which can be conveniently used to calculate the power consumed by the 10W resistor is –
a. )Thevenin’s theorem
b.) Maximum power transfer theorem
c.) Millman’s theorem
d.) Superposition theorem
29 The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of –
a. )KVL
b.) KCL
c.) Ohm’s law
d.) Both b and c
30. When the driving point impedance of a network at a frequency of 1Hz is then the impedance can be realised as –
31. For a lossless line-
1. Series resistance is zero 2. Shunt conductance is zero
3. Shunt conductance is infinite 4. Series resistance is infinite
a. ) 1 & 2
b. )2 & 3
c. ) 2 & 4
d.)3 & 4
32. When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit then-
a.) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b) Voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) Voltage across both R and C are square
d. )Voltage across both R and C are not square
33. When an A.M. broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kw power when the modulation percentage is 60 then the power of the carrier is-
a. ) 5.00 kw
b.) 7.69 kw
c.) 8.47 kw
d.) 9.17 kw
34. The main components of atmosphere responsible for absorption of em waves are -
a. ) Nitrogen and Oxygen
b. )Nitrogen and hydrogen
c.) Oxygen and water vapour
d. )Nitrogen and water vapour
35. The effective height of a linear antenna of length ‘l’ is say ‘x’ when the current distribution along it’s length is uniform and say, it is ‘y’ when the current distribution is sinusoidal then x/y is equal to -
a.) 2
b.) 1
c. ) 4/ p
d.) p/4
36. In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity -
a.) Increases with increasing frequency
b.)Decreases with increasing frequency
c. )Is independent of frequency
d.)Will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range

37. For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency of (fc is the cut–off frequency )-
a.) 3fc
*

38. When a transmission line having 50 impedance is terminated in a load of ( 40 + j30) W then the VSWR is –
a.)j 0.033
b.)0.8 + j 0.6
c.) 1
d.)2
39. The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propogation at-
a.)High frequencies
b.)Ultra-high frequencies
c. Microwave frequencies
d.)Optical frequencies
40. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by-
a. )100%
b. )150 %
c. )50%
d.) 0%
41. Reluctances in series are –
a. )Subtractive
b.) Additive
c.) Multiplicative
d.) None.
42. When the meters X and Y requires 40 mA and 50 mA respectively for full scale deflection then –
a. )X is more sensitive
b.) Y is more sensitive
c. )both are equally sensitive
d.) not possible to determine from the given data.
43. In the context of ac bridge measurement the term “Wagner Ground” means –
a.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray magnetic effects.
b.) any unwanted and unintended ground connection.
c.) a large metal plate buried in the ground and connected to one corner of the bridge.
d.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray capacitance effects.
44. The gating and counting circuits of a digital counter –
a. )cannot handle MHz signals
b.) cannot handle GHz signals
c. )can handle GHz signals
d.) none.
45. De- sauty bridge is more widely used because of –
a. )simplicity
b. )perfect balance for imperfect capacitors
c. )perfect balance for air capacitors
d.) maximum sensitivity.
46. A schottky diode clamp is used along with a switching BJT for –
a. )reducing the power dissipation.
b. )reducing the switching time
c. )increasing the value of b
d.) reducing the base current.
47. The phenomenon of creeping occurs in –
a. )Energy meters
b.) Ammeters
c. )Wattmeter
d. )Voltmeters
48. A permanent magnet moving coil measures the –
a. )true rms value
b.) dc value
c.) peak value
d. )rms plus dc value
49. The D`Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by adding to it a-
a. )thermocouple
b.) rectifier
c.) chopper
d. )transducer
50. Which one of the following detectors is generally used in ac bridges for audio frequency range ?
a. )Ac voltmeter
b. )CRO
c. )Headphones
d.) Vibration galvanometer.
51. In single phase circuit capacitor used for power factor correction decreases –
a.) The power factor
b.) The line current
c.) Both a and b
d.) The line current and increases power factor
52. In the given figure X the balanced bridge should be
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self-inductance having resistance
b. )A capacitance
c. )A non-Inductive resistance
d. )An inductance and a capacitance in parallel
53. SiO2 layer in an integrated circuit provides –
a. )Electrical connection to external circuit
b.) Physical strength
c. )Isolation
d. )Conducting path
54. For an SCR with turn on time of 5 microsecond, an ideal trigger pulse should have-
a. )short rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
b. )vlong rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
c. )short rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
d.)long rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
55. In a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum a c voltage is-
a) 0.955
b. )0.827
c.) 1.654
d. )1.169
56. In multiple pulse modulation used in PWN inverters, the amplitude and frequency for triangular carrier and square reference signals are respectively 4V, 6 KH2 and 1V, 1KH2. The number of pulses per half cycle and pulse width is respectively-.
a. )6, 900
b. )3, 450
c. )4, 600
d.) 3, 400
57. A four quadrant operation requires-
a. )two full converters in series.
b.) two full converters connected back to back.
c.) two full converters connected in parallel.
d.) two semi converters connected back to back
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

58. In voltage source inverters-
a. )load voltage waveform o depends on load impedance z, where as load current waveform io does not depend on z,
b. )Both o and io depend on z,
c.) o does not depend on z where as depends on z
d. )both o and do not depend on z
59. For an RC driving – point impedance function, the poles and zeros-
a. )should alternate on real axis
b.) should alternate only on the negative real axis
c.) should alternate on the imaginary axis
d.) can lie anywhere on the left half place.
60. The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate – cathode circuit and a zener diode across gate cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate circuit from-
a.) over voltages, over currents.
b. )over currents over voltages.
c. )over currents, noise signals
d. )noise signals, over voltages.
61. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a.)A resonant circuit is used as load
b.) The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c. ) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive
d. )None of the above
62. The circuit diagram shown in the figure consist of transistor is -
a. ) Parallel connection
b.) Cascode connection
c. ) Darlington connection
d. )Cascade connection
63. Increase of current in one transistor in a direct coupled circuit -
a. ) Causes an increase in current in other transistors of the circuit
b. )Causes a decrease in current in other transistor
c. )Does not affect the currents of other transistors connected in the circuit
d. )May either increase or decrease currents of other transistors connected in the circuit.
64. In a PNP transistor the charge carriers in the base region which play an important role in the operation of the transistor are-
a. ) The majority carriers
b.) The minority carriers
c. ) Nothing can be said
d. )None of the above
65. Voltage gain in a CC amplifier is-
a. )Cannot exceed unity
b. )Is always constant
c. ) Is dependent on input signal
d. )Depends on output impedance
66. Random-access-memory means –
a. )memory in a random fashion
b. )memory in a zigzag fashion
c. )memory in a circular fashion
d. )memory in a square fashion
67. BCD code is –
a. )an alphanumeric code
b. )a binary code
c .) the same thing as binary numbers
d. )non-weighed
68. The transfer function of a system is . The phase swift at w = 0 and w = a will be -
a.) 900 and –00
b. )-900 and 900
c. )-1800 and 1800
d. )None of the above
69. Number of resolutions in a 8 bit D/A converter is –
a. )8 bit
b.) 4 bit
c. )6 bit
d.) 10 bit
70. A bistable multivibrator is used as a –
a.) Free running multivibrator
b.) Frequency multiplier
c.) Frequency divider
d. )Wave shaper
71. The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at w = o and w = will be –
a. )900 and -00
b. )–900 and 900
c. )–1800 and 1800
d. )none of the above.
72. A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback control system is equal to The unit step response of this system starting from rest will have its maximum value at a time equal to –
a. )0 sec
b. )0.56 sec
c. )5.6 sec
d.) infinity.

73. To obtain the output position in a position control system, which one of the following transducers is used-
a.) Strain Gauge
b.) Load cell
c. )Synchro
d.) Thermistor

74. The maximum resonance peak for the second order transfer function T(S) = will be –
a. )4
b. )4/3
c. )2

75. Considering control system in the given fig .
For slight variation in G, the ratio of open loop sensitivity to closed pool
sensitivity will be given by-
a.) 1: (1+GH)
b.) 1 : (1+GH)-1
c. )1 : (1-GH)
d. )1 : (1-GH)-1
76 The diversity system in Troposcatter links is made use of to-
a. )Increase the bandwidth
b.) Prevent noise effects
c.) Increase the directivity of the antenna.
d.) Detect signal in the presence of fading.
77. )Mark out wrong statement regarding compandor-
a.) It compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to normal again after demodulation.
b.) It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c.) For weaker signals, it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error.
d. )Weaker signals, transverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is reduced –
78. Among other equipment a sub marine cable repeater contains –
a.) A dc power supply and regulator
b. )Filters for the two directions of transmission
c.) Multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment
d.) Pilot inject and pilot extract equipment
79. In a communication system noice is most likely to affect the signal-
a.) At the transmitter
b.) In the channel
c.) In the information source
d.) At the destination
80. The given circuit is a –
a.) Monostable multivibrator
b.) Frequency division circuit
c.) Miller sweeps circuit
d.) Bootstrap sweep circuit
81. In a plane transverse electromagnetic wave-
a.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is O.
b.)Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 900
c.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 1800
d.) None of above.
82. Directional coupler is a function of-
a.) Two port wave-guide
b.) Four port wove guide
c. )Single port wave-guide
d.) Size port wave-guide.
83. Isolators are used to couple generator and load because –
a.) It increases power of signal
b.) To match any load with generator
c. )To get phase shifted o/p
d.) To differentiate load & generator
84. In travelling wave tube for getting amplified output -
a. )Electron beam travels and RF field remains stationary
b.) Both electron beam and RF field travels in same direction
c. )Both electron beam and RF field remains stationary
d.) RF field travels and electron beam remains stationary

85. Crystal diode works on principle of –
a. )Negative resistance
b. )Positive resistance
c. )Square low
d.) Linear impedance
86. In gunn effect oscillator which mode having lowest operating frequency –
a. )Domain mode
b. )Delayed domain mode
c. )Quenched domain mode
d. )LSA mode
87. In Reflex klystron maximum energy transferred to gap by electrons-
a. )eR
b. )ee
c. )el
d. )eR , ee, el
88. The radio waves get absorbed by atmosphere depends –
a.) Their distance from transmitter is long
b.) Wave power is weak
c. )Improper polarization of wave
d.) Frequency of waves
89. 8085 mP has no of sets of communication lines-
a. )2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d. ) None
90. No. of o/p ports in peripheral mopped I/p are up to-
a.)32
b.) 64
c. ) 128
d.) 256
91. Is two byte instruction-
a.) MOV A, B
b.) ANA B
c.) MV I B, 92 H
d.) LHLD 2050 H
92. Banch instructions-
a. ) only uses flogs setting to make decision.
b. )only sets flogs according to results.
c. ) uses flogs settings as well as sets flogs setting
d. )nighteruse flog settings not set flogs.
93. What will be the time delay achieved from following loop-
Loop DCX B 6
MOV A, C, 4
ORA B 4
JNZ Loop 10
system clock freg. = 2 MHz.
a. ) 10 m s
b.)12 m s
c.) 14 m s
d. 16 m s
94. After execution of pop statement-
a. ) Stack pointer decremented by 2
b.) Stack pointer incremented by 2
c.) Stack pointer decremented by 1
d. )Stack pointer incremented by 1
95. Labels are used as an alternative for-
a.) Data
b.) Register name
c.) Memory address
d) Stack pointer
96. Microprogramming is a technique-
a) For programming the microprocessor
b.) For writing small programs efficiently
c. )For programming the control steps of computer
d.) For programming o/p / i/p
97. 00110010 – 01000101 =?
a.) 00010011
b. )11101101
c. )11100011
d. )11100100
98. When an array is possed as an argument to a function what exactly gets possed-
a.) Address of the array
b. )Values of elements of array
c.) Number of elements of array
d. )Address of the first element of the array
99. A write cycle time means-
a.) Minimum length of write pulse
b.) Minimum amount of time for which data must be valid before write pulse end
c.) Minimum time required between successive write operation
d.) Minimum time for which data must be valid after write pulse ends
BSNL Recruitment / Placement Paper previous years 2007 2008 free download here. Examination question papers free here..

100. If three i/p of a gate are 1, 0, 1 then output is O the gate must be-
a.) NOT
b.) AND
c.) OR
d. )NAND.
101. Inverting amplifier configuration using operational amplifier is –

102. Which logic family is most faster-
a.) ECL
b.) DCTL
c.) RTL
d) TTL
103. For getting positive o/p from two i/p OR gate for positive logic-
a.) both i/p must be positive
b.) both i/p must be negative
c.) any one of i/p must be positive
d.) undefined condition
104. Supercilious is –
a. )Harighty
b.) High brow
c.) Angry
d.) Inane.
105. Give the synonym of ‘moribund’-
a.) Undertaking
b.) Burial
c.) Leather bound
d.) Dying
106. The convention was to end on May 13 with a month long break in between. What do the two prepositions indicate?
a.) Duration
b.) Time
c) Direction
d.) Position
107. According to the writer what influences our dreams-
a. )inner censorships
b.) the stories
c. )the tales
d) none.
108. Vaunted is –
a.) Unvanquished
b.) Fell.
c.)Belittled
d.) Exacting.
109. The sun rays falls vertically on -
a.) Tropics
b.) Doldrums
c.) Poles
d.) Equator
110. Trimurti is associated with -
a.) Ellora
b.) Ajanta
c.) Khajuraho
d.) Elephant caves
111. In which year did the congress adopt “Poorna Swaraj” or complete independence as its goal?
a.) 1930
b.) 1929
c.) 1928
d.) 1942
112. Director of CBI-
a.) D.C Sharma
b.) A. M Shrivastava
c.) P.C Sharma
d.) P.C Dole
113. Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to -
a.) P. gopichand
b.) P. T Usha
c.) Sachin Tendulkar
d.) Gurpreet Singh
114. During which time is vist to Mecca treated as Haj?
a.) Id-Ul-Fitr
b) Id-ul-Zuha
c. )Milad-un-Nabi
d.) Any time
115. Of the 109 known metals, how many occur in nature and how many are produced synthetically in particle accelerators!
a.) 79 and 10
b.) 80 and 29
c. )95 and 14
d.) None can be produced synthetically
116. Earth’s average speed per second around the sun is -
a.) 30 km
b. ) 32 km
c.) 34 km
d.) 35 km
117. Governor of Reserve Bank of India is -
a.) Bimal Jalan
b.) C. Ranga Rajan
c. )Rana Malhotra
d. )S. Venkata Ramanan
118. The first pope to enter a mosque in Damascus syria is -
a )Pope John Paul II
b.) Pope John Paul I
c.) Pope John Paul III
d. )Pope John Paul V
119. Uranium is found in the state of -
a.) Orissa
b.) A. P
c.) Karnataka
d. )Bihar
120. Nuclear Power plant in Pakistan is located at-
a. )Karachi
b.) Peshawar
c. )Ellipse
d.) Paraboloid

BSNL JTO

2009-12-09T00:42:00.002+05:30

1. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-
a) Triangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Sinusoidal
d) Rectangular

2. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None

3. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel

5. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
6. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

7. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET

8. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

9. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

10. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps

11. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias

12. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6

13. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats

14. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC

15. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none

16. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b

17. A diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width

18. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
19. When the two networks shown in fig. are equivalent with respect to the terminals 1 and 2 at all frequencies then the values of CA, LB, LC and CC will be –

a) 0.5, 0.33, 6, 0.166
b) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.66
c) 0.5, 3, 3, 2
d) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.166
BSNL Placement Question Paper
20. The transmission parameter of the network C when the transmission parameter of the network A and B are and respectively are -
21. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem

22. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

23. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1

24. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position

25. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network

26. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C

27. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
d) h12

28. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

29. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz

30. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding

31. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
32. One of the following statements which is not true for a strip line compared to a waveguide is –
a) It can be directly connected to semiconductor microwave devices
b) It is much smaller in size
c) It has a smaller bandwidth
d) Losses are less

33. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W

34. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

35. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560

36. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

37. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron

38. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero

39. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these

40. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it’s internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

41. The aperture time of an A to D converter is given by -

42. A memoryless system is –
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none

43. An air capacitor is a –
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device

44. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor

45. Pirani gauge is used to measure –
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow

46. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters

47. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state

48. Q factor of a coil in Maxwell bridge is obtained as –

49. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
BSNL Recruitment and Placement Paper JTO
50. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig

51. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back

52. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P

53. For critical damping of the resonant circuit consisting of Rd, L, C in series is –
d) none of the above

54. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d) an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

55. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature

56. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages

57. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

58. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance

59. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz

60. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses
61. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above

62. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

63. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above

64. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc

65. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
(y denotes don’t care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y

66. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance

67. The 2’s complement of 10002 is –
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001

68. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch

69. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

70. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency

71. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) –200 dB/decade
b) –240 dB/decade
c) –230 dB/decade
d) –320 dB/decade
72. In a unity feed back control system the open loop transfer function is
The closed loop transfer unit will have pole at –
a) –2, -2
b) –2, -1
c) –2, +j1,-j1
d) –2, 2
73. In a compensating network the transfer function is of the form If this is a phase log network the value of should be –
a) exactly equal to 0
b) between 0 and 1
c) exactly equal to 1
d) greater than 1

74. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing
3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

75. A typical control system is shown.
Assuming the steady state errors is given by
*
76. The centre and radius of M of circles are given respectively by

77. The open –loop transfer function for a unity feedback system is –
what is the steady state error if the input is,
r(t) = (2 + 3t + 4t2) u(t)
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
78. The sensitivity SGM of a system with the transfer function is given by

79. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs

80. Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above

81. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF

82. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration

83. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two – tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation

84. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation

85. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
c) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen

86. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current

87. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz –100 GHz
c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz

88. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

89. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None

90. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600

91. The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise

92. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device

93. Scattering matrix equation for directional coupler is –
a)
b)
c)
d)

94. Noise figure is calculated as –
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

95. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
96. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) –5, 1
b) –2.5, 1
c) –5,0-5
d) –5, 2

97. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80

98. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain

99. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
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100. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace

101. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt

102. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills

103. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet

104. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither

105. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity

106. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
d) None of these

107. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President’s Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned

108. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner

109. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003

110. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW

111. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869

112. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership

113. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10

114. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian

115. India’s first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome

116. Name the author of the famous book “Politics”-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them

117. “Guernica” is Picasso’s painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution

118. The object of the Supreme Court’s Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament’s amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these

119. Which country in July ‘99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China

120. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland

BSNL JTO

2009-12-09T00:42:00.001+05:30

1. Reactive current through the capacitive load produces -
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Supermagnetic field
d) None

2. One of the following which gives piero-electric effect is -
a) Mu metal
b) PVDF
c) Sapphire
d) Ferrites

3. PZT piezo- electric materials have -
a) Higher curie temperature
b) Lower curie temperature
c) Absolute temperature
d) None

4. The residual resistivity of a binary alloy at OK is -
a) The sum of the residual resistivities of the component metals
b) The difference of the residual resistivities of the component metals.
c) The product of the residual resistivities of the component metals
d) Dependent on the concentration of the minor component in the alloy

5. In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided mainly because they -
a) Are always associated with some resistance
b) Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturisation
c) Are non-linear in nature
d) Saturate quickly

6. The depletion layer across a p-n junction lies -
a) mostly in the p-region
b) mostly in the n-region
c) equally to both p and n region
d) entirely in the p-region

7. The voltage induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field is -
a) pulsating dc
b) dc
c) rectified ac
d) ac

8. One of the following types of capacitor which is polarized is -
a) Electrolytic
b) Ceramic
c) Paper
d) Mylar

9. Electric shock is-
a) Always fatal
b) Never fatal
c) Sometimes fatal
d) Always disfiguring

10. A typical value of filter capacitor for 50 Hz ripple is -
a) 16mF
b) 10F
c) 10mF
d) None

11. A telephone relay armature is made of material with -
a) High electrical conductivity
b) Low electrical conductivity
c) Negligible conductivity
d) None

12. Larger the value of filter capacitor -
a) Larger is the peak-peak value of ripple voltage
b) Larger is the peak current in the rectifying diode
c) Longer is the time that current pulse flows through the diode
d) Smaller is the dc voltage across the load

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by -
a) Thermally generated electrons and holes
b) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c) Migration of minority carriers across the junction
d) Flow of drift current

14. The polarity of VGS for E-only MOSFET is -
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) depends on P or N channel
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15. The following which will serve as a donor impurity in silicon -
a) Boron
b) Indium
c) Germanium
d) Antimony

16. When bias applied to a vari-cap diode is increased, its capacitance -
a) is decreased
b) is increased
c) remains constant
d) first increases and then decreases.

17. In case of a bipolar transistor a is -
a) positive and greater than 1
b) positive and less than 1
c) negative and greater than 1
d) negative and less than 1

18. A BJT is -
a) not very sensitive to radiations
b) very sensitive to radiations.
c) independent of radiations
d) none

19. An SCR may be considered to be -
a) 2 diodes
b) 3 diodes
c) 4 diodes
d) 5 diodes

20. For a BJT, under the saturation condition -
a) IC = bIB
b) IC > bIB
c) IC is independent of all other parameters
d) IC < bIB

21. In modern MOSFET’s the material used for the gate is -
a) High purity silicon
b) High purity silica
c) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon
d) Epitaxial grown silicon

22. Find the Norton’s equivalent of the circuit given below -
23. When the source in the circuit shown is a sinusoidal source then the input voltage is -
a) 10V
b) 5V
c) 27V
d) 24V

24. The time constant of the network shown in the given figure is given by -

25. The voltage transfer ratio of two-port networks connected in cascade may be conveniently obtained from the -
a) product of the individual ABCD matrices of the two networks
b) product of voltage transfer ratios of the two individual networks
c) sum of the Z- matrices of the two networks
d) sum of the h – matrices of the two networks

26. When a network has response with time as shown in fig. then which one of the following diagrams represents the location

of the poles of this network ?

27. For the network shown in the given fig. the ratio is -

28. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 50mv in an experiment. The loss in decibels is -
a) –40dB
b) –6dB
c) –55dB
d) –60dB

29. When the network has 10 nodes and 17 branches then the number of different node pair voltages would be -
a) 7
b) 9
c) 10
d) 45

30. The circuit shown in the following fig. will act as an ideal current source with respect to terminals A and B when

frequency is -
a) zero
b) 1rad/s
c) 4rad/s
d) 16rad/s

31.When a short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1MHz and the effective height of the antenna is 30 m then

the calculated value of the radiation resistance is -
a) 1.58 W
b) 158 W
c) 15.8 W
d) None of these

32. Shannon’s law relates -
a) antenna gain to bandwidth
b) frequency to antenna gain
c) antenna gain to transmission losses
d) information carrying capacity to S/N ratio

33. One of the following modes which has the characteristic of attenceation becoming less as the frequency is increased and

is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is -
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

34.For a transmission line, the propogation constant, for a TEM wave travelling in it is given by (Where the symbols have the

usual meanings ) -
a) [ (R+jwL) (G+jwc)]
b) [ R+jwL) (G+jwc)] ½
c) [ (R-jwL) (G + jwc) ] ½
d) [(R-jwL) ( G+jw2c)]1/3

35. The advantages of wave guides over co-axial lines would include which of the following features-
1. Easier to use 2. lower power losses
3. Higher operating frequencies possible
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3

36. When a 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated in two resistive loads R1 and R2 such that the standing pattern in

the two cases have the same SWR , then the values of R1 and R2 (in ohms) should be -
a) 250 and 200 respectively
b) 225 and 25 respectively
c) 100 and 150 respectively
d) 50 and 125 respectively

37. The degenerate modes in a wave guide are characterized by -
a) Same cut off frequencies but different field distribution
b) Same cut off frequencies and same field distributions
c) Different cut off frequencies but same field distributions
d) Different cut off frequencies and different field distributions

38.A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a dielectric-dielectric boundary with Er1=2 and Er2=1, the angle of incidence for total

reflection is -
a) 30 0
b) 60 0
c) 45 0
d) 90 0

39. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to the dipole is a -
a) Null
b) Circle
c) Figure of eight
d) None of the above
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40. Permeance is the -
a) square of reluctance
b) reluctance
c) reciprocal of the reluctance
d) cube of the reluctance.

41. One of the following which is an active transducer is -
a) Photoelectric
b) Photovoltaic
c) Photo-conductive
d) Photo emission

42. The wein bridge uses only -
a) Inductors
b) Capacitors
c) Resistors
d) Capacitors and Resistors.

43. The greater the value of Q -
a) higher will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.
b) smaller will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.
c) nothing can be said)
d) none.

44. The most serious source of error in a) c) bridge measurement is -
a) eddy currents
b) leakage currents
c) residual imperfectness
d) stray fields.

45. Moving iron instruments -
a) have a linear scale
b) do not have a linear scale
c) both a and b)
d) none.

46. If accuracy is the main consideration, which one of the following voltmeters should one select -
a) 100 v ; 2 mA
b) 100 v ; 100 ohm/volt
c) 100 v ; 1mA
d) 10,000 v ; 10 mA

47. In dc tacho generators used for measurement of speed of a shaft, frequent calibration has to be done because -
a) the contacts wear off
b) the strength of permanent magnet decreases with age
c) the armature current produces heating effect
d) there is back emf.

48. Ideal transformer cannot be described by -
a) h parameters
b) ABCD parameters
c) G parameters
d) parameters

49. Consider the following statements -
A3- phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3 phase unbalanced load) Power supplied to this load can be measured using
1. Two wattmeters
2. One wattmeter
3. Three wattmeters
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 alone

50. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to -
a) Produce a constant voltage
b) Provide temperature compensation
c) Provide a constant current
d) Measure average pH value

51. Match the column A (Devices) with column B (Characteristics) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the column -
Column A Column B
A) BJT 1. Voltage controlled negative resistance
B) MOSFET 2. High current gain
C) Tunnel diode 3. Voltage regulation
D) Zener diode 4. High input impedance
Codes :
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 1 3 2 4

52. A thyristor during forward blocking state is associated with.-
a) large current , low voltage.
b) low current , large voltage.
c) medium current , large voltage
d) low current, medium voltage.

53. In controlled rectifiers, the nature of load current i.e. whether load current is continuous or discontinuous -
a) does not depend on type of load and firing angle delay
b) depends both on the type of load and firing angle delay
c) depends only on the type of load)
d) depends only on the firing angle delay.

54. A single phase voltage controller feeds power to a resistance of 10 W . The source voltage is 200 V rms. For a firing

angle of 900 , the rms value of thyristor current in amperes is -
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 5

55. In the performance of single phase and three phase full converters the effect of source inductance is to
a) reduce the ripples in the load current -
b) make discontinuous current as continuous
c) reduce the output voltage
d) increase the load voltage.

56. The cycloconverters (CCs) require natural or forced commutation as under -
a) natural commutation in both step up and step down CCs
b) forced commutation in both step up and step down CCs
c) forced commutation in step up CCs
d) forced commutation in step down CCs

57. Power transistors are more commonly of -
a) silicon npn type.
b) silicon pnp type.
c) silicon nnp type.
d) silicon npp type.

58. C is a -
a)Middle level language
b) High level language
c) Low level language
d) None of above

59. What will be output of program
main ( )
{ int i ;
print f (”Enter value of i”);
scant (”%d”, & i);
if ( i = 5 )
print f (”you entered 5″);
else
print f (”you entered %d”, i ); }
if user entered 100 then
a) 5
b) 100
c) 1005
d) None

60. (7F)16 + (BA)16 = (?)16-
a) 481
b) 139
c) –481
d) –139

61. Two’s complement of 3 bit nonzero linory number is some or original number is all bits accepts-
a) MSB are zeros
b) LSB are zeros
c) MSB are ones
d) LSB are ones.

62. The schematic circuits of RTL NOR gate is-

63. Transistors with high frequency have -
a) Thick base
b) Thin base
c) Some other feature
d) None of the above

64. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of -
a) Average waiting time
b) Grade of service
c) Peak waiting time
d) Erlangs

65. In a Hartley oscillator -
a) Necessary phase relation is obtained by connecting grid and plate electrodes to the opposite ends of the tuned circuit.
b) The mutual inductance must have the appropriate polarity.
c) Both grid circuit and plate tuned circuit offer inductive reactance
d) None of the above

66.The condenser C is charged in a bootstrap sweep generator -
a) Linearly but the discharge is non linear
b) Non linearly but the discharge is linear
c) Linearly and the discharge is linear
d) Non linearly and the discharge is non linear

67.In an audio amplifier audio signals become garbled and hence difficult to understand when an ac input current is large

enough to drive the output to -
a) saturation only
b) Cut off only
c) Either saturation or cut off
d) A value off the load line

68. Five 1 bit registers are referred as -
a) Flags
b) Slags
c) Tags
d) None of the above

69. Next binary number after 0,1, 10, 11 is -
a) 12
b) 101
c) 100
d) 110

70. Identify coincidence logic circuit in the following –
a) b)
c) d)
71. The output analog voltage Vo is given by -
72. If an inverter is placed at the input to an SR flip flop, the result is -
a) T flip flop
b) D flip flop
c) JK flip flop
d) BCD decade counter

73. See the Root locus diagram of a system and the following statements :-
1. The open loop system is a second order system.
2. The system is over damped for
3. The system is absolutely stable for all value of R.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1, 2, & 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

74. For the transfer function G(S)H(S) = the phase cross over frequency is -
a) 0.5 rad/sec
b) 0.707 rad/sec
c) 1.732 rad/sec
d) 2 rad/sec
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75. If the open loop transfer function of the system is G(S) H(S) =
then a closed loop pole will be located at S = -12 wher the value of K is -
a) 4355
b) 5760
c) 9600
d) 9862

76. Considering the following open loop transfer function -
The correct sequence of these systems in increasing order of the time taken for the unit step response to settle is –
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 1
d) 3, 2, 1.

77. Considering unit feed back control system in the given figure, the ratio of time constant of closed loop response to open

loop response will be -

a) 1: 1
b) 2 :1
c) 3 : 2
d) 2 : 3

78. Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is -
a) 17.340
b) 51.40
c) 1200
d) 600

79.For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because -
a) Phase can be varied from +1800 to -1800
b) It is resistant to the effects of noise.
c) Demodulation is very easy
d) It gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel.

80 . Several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known as –
a) Frequency division multiplex
b) Time division multiplex
c) A group
d) A super group

81. Identify the wrong statement-
The radar cross section of a target -
a) Depends on the frequency used
b) May be reduced by special coating of the target
c) Depends on the aspect of a target, if this is non spherical
d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.

82. Considering following parameters -
1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of the wave. Which of these

parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating electromagnetic wave?
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by -
a) poor front-end rejection
b) misalignment of receiver
c) detuning of one or more IF stages.
d) non functioning of AGC

84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is -
a) 262 1/2
b) 525
c) 30
d) 60

85. In a TV receiver the color killer -
a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome receivers.
b) ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers
c) prevents color overloading
d) makes sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off reception during the back porch.

86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m and the characteristic impedance of 50W. The inductance of

the cable is-
a) 1mH/m
b) 10 mH/m
c) 0.1 mH/m
d) 0.01 mH/m

87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is -
a) distortion less transmission
b) generates undesirable harmonic distortion
c) having loss of power
d) None of above.

88. Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) -
a) Greater mismatch error
b) Lower mismatch error
c) No effect on matching
d) Moderate mismatch error

89. In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be -
a) Critically coupled
b) Under coupled
c) Over coupled
d) No coupling required

90. The critical frequency is always -
a) Lower than maximum usable frequency
b) Equal to maximum usable frequency
c) Higher than maximum usable frequency
d) None of above

91. The PIN diode based on -
a) Nonlinear resistance
b) Nonlinear reactance
c) Negative resistance
d) Controllable impedence

92. Which antenna having circular polarization -
a) Horn antenna
b) Lens antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Discone antenna

93. The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 and the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is -
a) 250
b) 55
c) 10
d) 45

94. In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location -
a) 30 H
b) 24 H
c) 48 H
d) 60 H

95. In instruction cycle first operation is -
a) Memory read
b) Address read
c) Opcode fetch
d) Data read

96. CMP instruction comes under group -
a) Data transfer
b) Branching operations
c) Machine control operation
d) Logical operations.

97.In which logic operation does not effect any flags -
a) ANA B
b) ORA B
c) XRI A2H
d) CMA

98.What happen when CALL instruction executed -
a) Data retrieved from stock to register
b) Data from register saved on the stock.
c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock
d) 16 bit address from stock retrieved)

99 The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of -
a) stack pointer.
b) HL register .
c) Program counter
d) Accumulator
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100.The decoder is a logic ckt that -
a) Amplifies the current or power at i/p.
b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p
c) Provides appropriate code as o/p for each i/p signal
d) Both b & c)

101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how ————— he was -
a) indigent
b) indifferent
c) assiduous
d) cursory.

102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is -
a) almanac
b) beacon
c) sign
d) signal.

103.What is the correct meaning of prudish.?
a) careful
b) fast
c) God
d) brave

104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number -
a) woman – women.
b) hair – hairs
c) child – children.
d) foot – feet.

105.Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-
Abut is
a) Stimulate
b) Grasp
c) Oppose
d) Adjoin

106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is -
a) Mount Everest
b) Kanchenjunga
c) Nanda Devi
d) Mount Kailash

107. German silver is an alloy comprising -
a) Copper, Nickel and Zinc
b) Silver, copper and Zinc
c) Silver Nickel and Zinc
d) Nickel, Zinc and Lead

108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar’s mausoleum is in -
a) Delhi
b) Lahore
c) Yangon
d) Agra

109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York and Pentagon in Washington d)C was attacked by terrorist -
a) 12 September 2001
b) 11 September 2001
c) 11 July 2001
d) 20 December 2001

110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey Tournament in Kualalumpur by -
a) 4-2
b) 2-0
c) 3-2
d) 2-1

111.Which planets in the solar system are known as ‘Inferior Planets’ -
a) Earth and Mars
b) Earth and Mercury
c) Mars and Mercury
d) Mercury and Venus.

112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at -
a) Nellore
b) Amravati
c) Tanjore
d) Kozhikode

113. The new chairman and Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is -
a) Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh
b) Mr. Jitendra Patil
c) Mr. Ragh
d) Mr. Shubhash chand Jain

114. Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples?
a) Ajanta
b) Ellora
c) Elephanta
d) All originated in the same period)

115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu and Kashmir and the North East under the new ordinance ‘POTO’ is -
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23

116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand?
a) Ganga
b) Mandakini
c) Alakananda
d) Bhagirathi

117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the -
a) Cornea
b) Sclera
c) Iris
d) Retina

118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the -
a) 40th Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment
c) 43rd Amendment
d) 44th Amendment

119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by -
a) Guru Hargovind
b) Guru Nanak Dev
c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
d) Guru Govind singh

120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is -
a) 27
b) 28
c) 29
d) 30

BSNL JTO

2009-12-09T00:40:00.000+05:30

1. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then

which of the following will have least value in ohms-
a.) Resistance
b.) Reactance
c.) Impedance
d.) None

2 Oscillator crystal are made of –
a.) Silicon
b.) Germanium
c.) Quartz
d.) None

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-
a. )Air
b. )Ferrite
c.) Powdered ion
d.) Steel

4. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic

plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as

shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
a.)
b.)C
c.)2C
d.)4C

5. A superconductor is a –
a.)A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.)A conductor having zero resistance
c.)A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.)A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of

the inductor would be –
a)8.05 pF
b)10.05pF
c.)16.01pF
d.)20.01pF

7. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
a.)Inductance
b.)Capacitance
c.)Resistance
d.)None

8. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
a.)Resistance in the line
b.)Capacitor in series with contacts
c.)Capacitor in parallel with contacts
d.)None

9. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.)Class ‘A’
b.)Class ‘b’
c.)Class ‘C’
d.)None

10. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.)High positive
b.)High negative
c.)Low positive
d.)Zero

11. The input gate current of a FET is –
a.)a few microamperes
b.)negligibly small
c.)a few milliamperes
d.)a few amperes

12. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –
a.)25 mA
b.)40 mA
c.)25/16 mA
d.)10 mA

13. A step recovery diode –
a.)has on extremely short recovery time
b.)conducts equally well in both directions
c.)is mainly used as a harmonic generator
d.)is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

14. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be

approximately-
a.)0.1V
b.)5V
c.)10V
d) V

15. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
a.)source
b.)drain
c.)gate
d.)none

16. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –
a.)Triac
b.)UJT
c.)Diac
d.)SCR

17. A typical optical fibre has –
a.)High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.)Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.)Both a and b
d.)None

18. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
a.)9
b.)11
c.)10
d.)21

19. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to

obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be –
a.)3 – j1
b.)3 + j9
c.)7.5 + j 2.5
d.)7.5 – j 2.5
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solutions coming shortly!
20. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –
a.)5
b.)6.5
c.)8
d.)9

21. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the

characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-
a.)Z0 cot h Öl
b.)Z0 cot Öl
c.)Z0 tan h.Ö l
d.) Z0 tan Öl

22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –
a.)l
b.)l/4
c.)l/2
d.)l/
23 A relatively permanent information is stored in
a. )ROM
b.)RAM
c.)PROM
d.)Volatile memory
24. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to –
b.) RC
c.) 2RC
d.) 4RC

25. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ’s’ and then if the switch

is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –
a.) cos50tA
b.) 2A
c.) 2cos100tA
d.) 2sin50tA

26. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be

respectively –
a) 9W, 6W and 6W
b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
d.) 6W, 9W and 6W

27. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series

then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
d.) indeterminate

28. Joule/coulomb is the unit of -
a.) Electric field potential
b.) Potential
c .) Charge
d.) None of the above

29. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
a.) Are parallel to each other
b.)Are one and same
c.) Cut each other orthogonally
d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle

30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the

characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line

31. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector

at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
a.) In the +x direction
b.) In the –x direction
c. ) In the +y direction
d.) In the –y direction

32. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
d.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

33. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
a.) TM01
b.)TE10
c.) TM112
d.)TE11

34. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d

sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –
35. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then

this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated

power with the same excitation will be
a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value
b.)Remain the same
c. )Increase
d.)Decrease to zero

36. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be

accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above

37. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.

38. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter

39. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?
a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.
b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.
c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
BSNL recruitment / placement examination paper for previous years 2007 2008 2009 sample aptitude / reasoning / technical

questions free download here. Answers key / solutions coming soon!
40. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement

sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –
a.) 11.1
b.) 44.2
c.) 52.3
d.) 66.3

41. The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

42. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance

50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75

43. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

44. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C

45. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –
a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
b.) Silicon (Si)
c.) Copper (Cu)
d.) Germanium (Ge)

46. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 3
d.) 4

47. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
a. b.
c. d.
48. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters
a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

49. In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
S is closed at t = 0 the
maximum value of current and the
time at which it reaches this value are respectively.
a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
b.) 50 A, 30 mS
c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS
d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-
a.) 200 A
b.) 170.7 A
c.) 141.4 A
d.) 70.7 A

51. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by
The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately

a.) 5850 KHZ
b.)585 KHZ
c.) 5850 HZ
d.)585HZ

52. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
a). Higher current carrying
b.)Lower ripple factor
c.) Higher efficiency
d.)Lower peak increase voltage require

53. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
a.) If the conduction angle decrease
b).If the conduction angle increase
c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
d.)None of the above

54. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal

biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is-
a.)75
b.)76
c.)75/76
d.)-75

55. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off

56. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling

57. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides
a.) Current series feedback
b.)Current shunt feedback
c.) Voltage series feedback
d.)Voltage shunt feedback

58. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

59. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –
a.) PISO shift register
b.) SOIP shift register
c.) SIPO shift register
d.) POIS shift register

60. PROMs are used to store-
a.) bulk information
b.) information to be accessed rarely
c.) sequence information
d.) relatively permanent information

61. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-
a.) Output bit combination
b.) analog output voltage
c.) input bit combination
d.) none of the above

62. ‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a.) s = 0, R = 0
b.) s = 1, R = 1
c.) s = 0, R = 1
d.) s = 1, R = 0

63. Name the fastest logic family-
a) TTL
b. RTL
c.) DCTL
d.) ECL

64. Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is –
a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB
c.) A + AB = A
d.) None of the above

65. In the given fig find radix of the system –
a.) 2b.) 4
c.) 6
d.) 8

66. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –
a.) increase the transmission capacity
b) improve noice performance
c.) incorporate error control coding
d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal

67. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is-
a.)
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5

68. Identify the example of open-loop system-
a.) A windscreen wiper
b.) Aqualung
c.) Respiratory system of an animal
d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.

69. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
a.) 1&3
b.) 1&4
c.) 2&4
d.) 1&4
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment / placement last exam paper previous years 2007 2008 2009 free sample papers here.
70. A system is described by
To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.
Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
a.) Only V1
b.)Only V2
c.) Both V1 and V2
d.) Neither V1 nor v2
71. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function

72. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-

73. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4

74. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second

75. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142

76. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
77. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.)The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing

78. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.

79. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

80. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

81. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

82. Circuit in the given figure represents. –
a.) an astable multivibrator
b.) A monostable multivibrator
c.) Voltage controlled oscillator
d.) Ramp generator

83. . D = r is-
a.) Maxwell’s 1st equation
b.) Maxwell’s II equation
c.) Maxwell’s III equation
d.) Maxwell’s IV equation

84. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-
a.) TM00
b.) TM01
c.) Tm10
d.) TM11

85. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
a). port 4
b). port 3
c. port 2.
d.) port 3 & 4.

86. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
a.) Barometer are used
b.) Thermisters are used
c.) Calorimetric technique
d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used

87. The difference between TWT & klystron is –
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact

88. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
a.) Hown antennas
b.) Bioconical antennas
c.) helical antenna
d. Discone

89. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
a.)
b.)
c.)
d.)

90. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
a.) 4
b.) 6
c.) 8
c.) 10

91. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5

92. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0
b.) z = 0, cy = 1
c.) z = 1, cy = 0
d.) z = 1, cy = 1
93. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
b.) when INTA signal is low.
c. interrupt flip flop enabled.
d.) none of above.

94. Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor
b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer
d.) for programming o/p / i/p

95. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
a.) interpreter
b.) compiler
c.) operating
d.) system

96. (10110011)2 = (?)8
a.) 253
b.) 263
c.) 273
d.) 283

97. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-
a.) NAND
b.) NOR
c.) AND
d.) NOPE.

98. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NAND
d.) X-OR

99. 38. A symbol of JK flip flop is-
BSNL Free download previous years 2007 2008 2009 recruitment question papers for GE JTO exam sample papers. Answer keys /

solutions coming soon!
100. A demultiplener-
a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p

101. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?
a.) fascination
b.) open approval.
c.) Indulgent tolerance.
d.) Scornful.

102. What type of sentence is this ?
Hurray! We won the match
a.) Exclamatory
b.) assertive
c.) Negative
d.) Affirmative

103. Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’
a.) hour
b.) M. A.
c.) Umbrella
d.) Man

104. The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –
a.) freshly
b.) freshen
c.) fresheners
d.) fresh itself

105. The word ‘clang’ is an example of –
a.) Simile
b.) inversion
c.) onomatopoeia
d.) irony

106. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-
a.) Pentafour software
b) Infosys
c.) IBM
d.) Wipro

107. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-
a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain
b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan
c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan

108. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-
a.) 42nd
b.) 43rd
c.) 40th
d.) 45th

109. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-
a.) T. Venkat Naidu
b.) K. Hari Harh
c.) N. Rengaswany
d.) M. Mudliar

110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This

is enshrined in Article-
a.) 311
b.) 329
c.) 356
d.) 365

111. Ostrich is a-
a.) Running bird
b.) Flying bird
c) Swimming bird
d.) Migratory bird

112. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-
a.) Oxygen
b.) Nitrogen
c.) Ozone
d.) Carbon-dioxide

113. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-
a.) Rice
b.) groundnut
c.) Sugarcane
d.) gram

114. The function of World Bank is to-
a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade

115. Speed of sound is maximum in-
a. )Water
b.) Air
c.) Steel
d.) Vacuum
116. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
c.) Lajpat Rai
d.) Bhagat Singh

117. Durand cup is associated with-
a.) Hockey
b.) Tennis
c.) Football
d.) Badminton

118. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
a.) 1908
b.) 1910
c.) 1913
d.) 1914

119. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-
a.) May 18, 1975
b.) May 20, 1974
c) May 17, 1974
d.) May 17, 1974

120. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
a.) Asian development Bank
b.) World Bank
c.) Swiss Bank
d.) Reserve Bank of India

Power Sector Links

2009-12-07T09:07:00.001+05:30

Power Sector Links

MoP - Ministry of Power

BBMB - Bhakra Beas Management Board

CEA - Central Electricity Authority

BEE - Bureau of Energy Efficiency

DVC - Damodar Valley Corporation

SJVN - Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited

NPTI - National Power Training Institute

NTPC - National Thermal Power Corporation

PGCIL - Power Grid Corporation of India Limited

CERC - Central Electricity Regulatory Commission

NEEPCO - North Eastern Electric Power Corporation Limited

NHPC - National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited

Rail way websites

2009-12-07T08:50:00.001+05:30

Official Websites of Ministry of Indian Railway

Right to Information Act, 2005

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Railway Recruitment Boards

Railway Staff College, Baroda

Research Design and Standards Organisation

Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering

Darjeeling Himalayan Railways

Test paper

2009-12-05T20:09:00.002+05:30

Q1 Which of the following has high electrical resistivity

(a) Copper (b) Gold (c) Carbon (d) Silver

Q2 The resistance of 200 m. long circular copper wire is 21Ω.If its thickness is 0.44mm,What is the resistivity(ohm-m) of the copper is

(a) 1.597*10-8 (b) 2.507*10-8 (c) 5.597*10-6 (d) None of these

Q3 Metals have temperature coefficient of resistance

(a) Positive (b) negative (c) May be positive or Negative (d) None of these

Q4 The resistance of two wire is 25Ω when connected in series and 6Ω when connected in parallel.The resistance of each wire is

(a) 12 &13Ω (b) 15&10Ω (c) 20& 5 Ω (d) 24&1Ω

Q5 A current of 3A flows through 10Ω resistor. The energy dissipated in 5sec.is

(a) 450J (b) 150J (c) 250J (d) None of these

Q6 Ideal current source has its internal resistance equal to

(a)1Ω. (b)2Ω. (c) 0Ω (d) InfiniteΩ

Q7 If resistance of all three branches of star connected load is 1Ω each, then the resistance of each branch of equivalent delta load would be

(a) 3Ω (b) 9Ω (c) 0.3Ω (d) 1/3Ω

Q8 A p.d. of 300V is maintained across the terminals of the capacitor. The electric field strength(kV/m) between the plate gap of (0.3mm) is

(a) 1000 (b) 2000 (c) 3000 (d) 4000

Q9 An 8micro-farad capacitor is connected in series with 0.5MΩ resistor. The time constant of the RC circuit is

(a) 16sec. (b) 6sec (c) 5sec (d) 4sec

Q10 An 8micro-farad capacitor is charged from a 100V supply. The energy stored in the capacitor is

(a) 0.004J (b) 0.0016J (c) 0.008 J (d) None of these

Q11 A conductor carries a current of 100A at right angle to a magnetic field having density of 0.5 T. The force on per unit lengh of the conductor is

(a) 50N (b) 500N (c) 150N (d) 5.0N

Q12 A magnetic flux of 200μwb passing through a coil of 1200 turns is reversed in 0.2sec.The induced emf in the coil is

(a) 12V (b) 2.4V (c) 2.2V (d) 1.2V

Q13 The value of 1/√(μ0 ε0) is equal to

(a) Speed of light (b) 1/ Speed of light (c) (Speed of light )2 (d) None of these

Q14 A inductance (L) of coil is given by

(a) NΦ/I (b) NI/Φ (c) I /ΦN (d) None of these

Q15 A coil of 200 turns is wound on a non-magnetic circular core of area 500mm2& the mean circumference of 400mm.The inductance of coil is

(a) 628H (b) 6.28μH (c ) 62.8μH (d) None of these

Q16 An alternating voltage is given by the equation v = 200Sin 314t the rms value of the voltage is

(a) 141.42V (b) 282.82V (c) 14.142V (d) None of these

Q17 In a transformer the induced emf in the winding is given by (notation used have their usual meaning)

(a) E = 1.11 N f Φm (b) E = 2.22 N f Φm (c) E = 4.44 N f Φm (d) None of these

Q18 A dc motor takes an armature current of 10A at 220V.The armature resistance of the machine is 0.2Ω, flux per pole is .01wb, the no of poles are 6,and the armature has wave wound 480 conductors. The torque developed in armature is

(a) 100Nm (b) 25Nm (c) 44Nm (d) 22.91Nm

Q19 A,3-phase, synchronous generator has 4 pairs of pole is running with the speed of 900 rpm.The frequency of the supply would be

(a) 50Hz (b) 60Hz (c) 25Hz (d) 150Hz

Q20 The advantage of permanent magnet moving coil(PMMC) instrument is

(a)Low power consumption (b) No hysteresis loss
(c) Efficient eddy current damping (d) All of the above

Q21 The majority charge carrier in p-type semiconductor are

(a) Electrons (b) Holes (c) Both Electrons and Holes (d) None of these

Q22 An n-type semiconductor as a whole is

(a) Electrically +ve (b) Electrically –ve (c) Electrically neutral (d) None of these

Q23 The out put of the logic gate is one, only when all the inputs are one. Then logic gate is

(a) AND (b) OR (c) NAND (d) NOR

Q24 In a transistor which of the following region is very lightly doped

(a) Emitter (b) Collector (c) Base (d) None of these

Answers

1 c
2
3 a
4 b
5 a
6 d
7 a
8
9 d
10 d
11 a
12 d
13 a
14 a
15
16 a
17 c
18 d
19 b
20
21 b
22 c
23 a
24 c

PSU'S & GOVT. SECTOR COMPANIES

2009-12-02T01:14:00.001+05:30

PSU'S & GOVT. SECTOR COMPANIES

APGENCO SUB ENGINEER,S ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

2009-12-01T14:48:00.001+05:30

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

1. ELEMENTS OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING :

a. Comprehend basic principles of electricity.
b. Know the magnetic effects of electric current.
c. Understand electromagnetic induction.
d. Understand electric charge and electrostatic field.

2. ELECTRICAL CIRCUITS:

a. Understand Kirchoff`s laws and star delta Transformations and Network Theorems.
b. Comprehend the relationship between quantities connected with alternating current.
c. Comprehend the single phase A.C. Circuits.
d. Poly Phase Circuits.

3. D.C. MACHINES:

a. Fundamentals of D.C. Generators.
b. Armature Reaction and Characteristics of D.C. Generator.
c. Fundamentals of D.C. Motors.
d. Speed Control and Starters for D.C. Motors.
e. Characteristics and Testing of D.C. Motors.

4. ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS & BATTERIES:

a. Know the classification of different measuring instruments.
b. Understand the construction and working of different electrical measuring instruments.
c. Understand the method of measurement of resistance.
d. Transducers and Sensors
e. Understand Batteries

5. A.C MACHINES:

a. Understand the working of Single Phase Transformers.
b. To understand Three Phase Transformers.
c. Know the classification, construction, working and testing of alternators.
d. Comprehend the procedure for voltage control and synchronization.
e. Comprehend the working of synchronous motors.
f. Comprehend the working of three phase induction motor.
g. Comprehend the working of single Phase induction motor.
h. Comprehend the working of single Phase commutator motor.

6. POWER SYSTEMS:

a. Understand the various sources of Power Generation.
b. Understand working of Thermal Power Station.
c. Understand Hydroelectric Power Station.
d. Understand the working of Nuclear & Gas Power Stations.
e. Comprehend combined operation and economics of power stations.
f. Comprehend the need for transmission and choice of supply system.
g. Line structure for transmission and distribution.
h. Underground Cables.
i. Understand different types of switchgear, fuses and reactors and their working
j. Protective relays.
k. Protection of alternators, transformer and transmission line.
l. Lighting arrestors and neutral grounding.

7. ELECTRONICS:

a. Passive Components (Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors).
b. Know the semi-conductor Devices.
c. Understand the working principle of Power supply circuits.
d. Understand the performance of Special Devices.
e. Understand the principle of Working of Amplifiers.
f. Understand the Principle of Working of Small Signal Amplifiers.
g. Understand the principle of working of Amplifiers.
h. Understand the Principle of Oscillators.
i. Appreciate the need for Modulation and Demodulation.
j. Electronic instruments and Industrial Applications.
k. Know the Basics of ICs.
l Know the basics of digital electronics.
m. Understand the working of combination logic circuits.
n. Understand the working of sequential logic circuits
o. Understand working of registers and memories.

8. ELECTRICAL UTILIZATION AND TRACTION:

a. Understand the principles of lighting.
b. Understand Principle of electric heating, welding and its industrial application.
c. Electric traction systems.

9. GENERAL MECHANICAL ENGINEERING:

a. I.C. Engines – Boilers – Turbines.
b. Understand the working of the centrifugal pumps.

10.INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY.

a. Understand the features of MS-word
b. Understand working with MS-Excel
c. Understand MS-Power point
d. Understand working with MS-Access.

11. INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP:

a. Understand the principles of management as applied to industry.
b. Know the organization structure of an industry and the behavior of an individual in an organization.
c. Understand the different aspect of production management.
d. Understands the role of material management industries.
e. Understand marketing, sales and feasibility study.
f. Comprehend the provisions of industrial legislation in India and safety procedures.
g. Understand ISO 9000 and TQM
h. Understand the role of entrepreneur in economic development and in improving the quality of life.

ias

2009-11-19T01:42:00.000+05:30

Electrical Engineering Previous Paper-1998

HAL 12 November 2008

2009-11-15T13:48:00.003+05:30

Question

Answer

Question………………………

In phase controlled rectifiers PF

V(rms)/Vs

An SCR has half cycle surge current rating of 3000A for 50Hz. One cycle surge current will be?

I2t=I2subT
I=Isub*√(T/t)
t=total time period
T=half time period

A step-up chopper is feed from a 220v dc source to deliver a load voltage of 66o v.If the non conducting time is 100micro-sec then required pulse width will be.

Vin/(1-D)=Vout
220/(1-D)=660
D=2/3
Toff=Ton(1-D)
Ton=300 Micro sec

Good transformer oil contains how much amount of water in ppm?

8PPM

Lightning over voltage create how much volt?

Lightning over voltage depends upon the magnitude of lightning (KV)

K/s(s+1)(s+5) then find out the value of K so that system become stable

S3+6S2+5S+k----CE
Apply routh hurwitz criteria
S3 1 5
S2 6 K
S1 (30-k)/6
S0 K

(30-k)/6>0
30-K>0
k<30

If a square waveform is given to the supply side of a 2wdg transformer its
o/p waveform will be

Triangular Wave

SC test done on transformer

To find Out the Copper losses And Series Parameters

If a transformer is operating in .8 PF lag & at efficiency of .9
if now P is .8 lead the efficiency will become

0.9 Only Because Efficiency curve is Single valued cure

Dielectric strength of air is?

30 kv/cm peak or 21.1 kv/cm rms

The voltage of a generator and an infinite bus are given
0.92, 10 deg & 1.0, 0 deg respectively the generator acts as a

Synchronous generator

A wave will not experience any reflection when impedance of line is equal to

Surge impedance
400 ohms for over head lines
40 to 50 ohms for cables

Power transmitted is related to system voltage as

P=EV/Xs Sinδ

Surge wave is attended by

Resistor

In galvanometer damping is provided by

Mechanical and electromagnetic

Megger is used for

Measurement of Very high resistance like insulation resistance of the cable etc
Its working principle is based on moving coil

AC is applied against a moving coil meter it will read

Zero if frequency is high
Oscillate around zero if frequency is low

Rectifier type instrument measures what value

RMS

Advantage of electrostatic instrument is

More accurate
Loading effect is low
Fast response etc.

Creeping occurs because

Over compensation due to frictional forces
Over voltage across pressure coil

Why 2 holes are drilled oppositely in disc of energy meter

To eliminate the creeping

Energy meter is_____ type equipment

Integrating / recording

Inductance is measured by which bridge

Maxwell’s, Anderson, Hay’s, Owen’s bridge

Which type of motor is used in refrigerator?

Capacitor Start and run Single phase induction motor

Corona’s advantage

To increases the virtual diameter of conductor
To protect the conductor from Switching over voltages

Reflection coefficient of current in open ended line is

-1

Reflection coefficient of voltage in open ended line is

1

Reflection coefficient of current in short circuit line is

1

Reflection coefficient of voltage in short circuit line is

-1

Calculation of making current when MVA & KV was given.

Making current=2.5*breaking current
Breaking current=MVA/KV

he o/p voltage e1 & e2 of 2 full-bridge inverters added using o/p transformer. In order to eliminate 5th harmonic from o/p voltage, the phase angle between e1&e2 will be-

36◦

A single phase fully controlled line commutated ac-dc converter operates as an inverter when-

α > 90◦

Why rotor of SCIM is skewed?

To eliminate the slot harmonics in the rotor

Magnetostriction is occurs in

AC circuits’ only

Interlopes are connected for?

To eliminate the Armature reaction

Identify type by pu value Xd”=0.3, Xd’=0.3, X0=0.6?

Transmission line

What to do for converting sine wave to triangular wave?

Integrating

Wave shape of armature mmf?

Triangular wave

Emf in a conductor is directly proportional to?

E α ΦZNP

What’s the order of Jacobin matrix for 20 no. of bus bar?

=2n-2
N=no of buses
=38

How many watt meters required to measure 3phase 4 wire system?

3

Junior Engineer (CPWD) Examination

2009-11-13T21:07:00.000+05:30

Junior Engineer (CPWD) Examination

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION :
The examination will be conducted in two parts :
A. Written Test (500 marks)
B. Interview (100 marks)

Written Test: It will consist of two papers:-

Paper Subject No. Of Questions Marks
I a) General Awareness 25 50
b) General Engineering 75 150
(Civil & Structural)
OR
General Engineering
(Electrical & Mechanical) 75 150
Total 100 200

II General Engineering(Civil & Structural) 300

OR
General Engineering(Electrical & Mechanical) 300

Note I: Paper I will be Objective type multiple choice.

Note II: Paper II will be of conventional type.

Note III: Paper I and II will be bi-lingual (i.e. in Hindi and English). Candidates will have option to answer Paper II either in Hindi or in English language.

Note IV: Paper II will be evaluated in respect of only those candidates who qualify in Paper I at the minimum standard which may be decided by the Commission at its discretion.

Note V: Only those candidates who attain minimum qualifying standard in Part-I of the
Examination, as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion, will be eligible to be called for Personality Test/Interview.

B. Part II: Personality Test (Interview): 100 marks
The interview/personality test is structured in such a manner that the candidates’ interest, knowledge, various traits, aptitude, suitability etc. are probed among other things, through academic qualifications, experience, extra-curricular activities, general awareness/knowledge, depth of knowledge of the subjects studied (10+2 onwards), communicative skill and over-all personality etc.

Candidates called for interview/personality test, have the option to converse either in Hindi or English language during the interview process.

Syllabus:
The standard of the questions in Engineering subjects will be approximately on the level of Diploma in Engineering (Civil/ Electrical/ Mechanical) from a recognized Institute, Board or University and recognized by All India Board of Technical Education. All the questions will be set in SI units.

1. General Awareness:

Questions will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to Sport, History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity, Indian Constitution and Scientific Research, etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.

2. General Engineering (Civil and Structural)

Civil Engineering:

Building Materials: Physical and Chemical properties, classification, standard tests, uses and manufacture/quarrying of materials e.g. building stones, silicate based materials, cement (Portland), Asbestos products, Timber and Wood based Products, laminates, bituminous materials, paints, varnishes.

Surveying: Principles of surveying, working of properties, compass and bearing, plane table surveying, theodolite traverse, adjustment of theodolite, levelling and contouring, curvature, refraction, permanent adjustment of dumpy level, methods of contouring and uses of a control map, tachometric survey.

Soil Mechanics: Origin of soil phase diagram, definitions of void ratio, porosity, degree of saturation, water content, specific gravity of soil grains and unit weights, grain size distribution curves for different solid and their uses. Atterjerg’s limits, ISI soil classification, plasticity chart, coefficient of permeability, effective stress, consolidation of soils.

Calculation of shear strength of soils, direct shear test, vane shear test, triaxial test, soil compaction, Lab compaction, Lab compaction test, moisture content and bearing capacity of soils, plate load test, standard penetration test.

Hydraulics: Fluid properties, hydrostatics, measurements of flow, Bernoulli’s theorem and its application, flow through pipes, flow in open channels, weirs, flumes, spillways, pumps and turbines.

Environmental Engineering: Quality of water, source of water supply, purification of water, distribution of water, need of sanitation, sewerage system, circular sewers, oval sewer, sewer appurtenances, surface water drainage, sewage treatments.

Structural Engineering : Theory of structures: Elasticity constants, type of beams, determinate and indeterminate, bending moment and shear force diagrams of simply supported, cantilever and over hanging beams. Moment of area and moment of inertia for rect. & circular section, bending moment and shear stress for tee, channel and compound sections, chimneys, dams and retaining walls, eccentric loads, slope deflection of simply supported and cantilever beams, critical load and columns, torsion of circular section.

Concrete Technology : Properties, Advantages and uses of concrete, cement aggregates quality, water cement ratio, workability, mix design, storage, batching, mixing, placement, compaction, finishing and curing of concrete, quality control of concrete, hot weather and cold weather concreting, repair and maintenance of concrete structure.

RCC Design:

RCC beams: flexural strength, shear strength, bond strength, design of single reinforced beans, lintels, cantilever beams, double reinforced beams, one way slabs, two way slabs, isolated footings, reinforced brick work. T-beams, columns, staircases, retaining walls, water tanks (RCC design questions may be based on both Limit State method and Working Stress method).

Steel Design: Steel design and construction of steel columns, beams, roof trusses, plate girders.

3. General Engineering (Electrical and Mechanical)

* Electrical Engineering

Basic Electrical Engg.: Elect. Measurements, Concepts of current, voltage, resistance, power and energy, their units, Ohm’s law.

Circuit Law: Kirchooff’s law, solution of simple network problems, Network theorems and their applications, Electro-magnetism, concept of flux, e m f, reluctance, magnetic circuits.

Electro-magnetic induction, self and mutual inductance.

A.C. fundamentals, instantaneous, peak, R.M.S. and average values of alternating waves, Equation of sinusoidal wave form, simple series and parallel AC. circuits consisting of R.L. and C, Resonance.

Measurement and measuring instruments, Moving coil and moving iron ammeters and voltmeters, Extension of range, Wattmeters, Multimeters, megger, Basic Electronics.

Electrical machines: Basic principles ofD.C. motors, generators, their characteristics, Speed control and starting of D.C. motors, losses and efficiency of D.C. machines. 1-Phase and 3-phase Transformers: Principles of operation, equivalent circuit, voltage regulation, O.C. and S.C. tests, efficiency, auto transformers.

Synchronous machines, generation of 3-phase e m f, armature reaction, Voltage regulation, parallel operation of two alternators, synchronizing, starting and applications of synchronous motors.

3-Phase Induction motor, rotating magnetic field, principle of operation, equivalent circuit, torque-speed characteristics, starting and speed control of 3-phase induction motors, Fractional KW motors, 1-phase induction motors, A.C. series motor, reluctance motor.

General, Transmission and Distribution: Different types of power stations, Load factor, diversity factor, demand factor, simple problems thereon, cost of generation, inter- connection of power stations.

Power factor improvement, various types of tariffs, types of faults, short circuit current for symmetrical faults.

Switchgears- rating of circuit breakers: Principles of a extinction by oil and air, H.R.C. fuses, Protection, earth leakage, over current, Buchhotgz relay, Merz- Prince system of protection of generators & transformers, protection of feeders and bus bars.

Lightning arresters, Various transmission and distribution systems, Comparison of conductor materials, efficiency for different systems.

Utilization of Electrical Energy, Illumination, electric heating, Electric welding, electroplating, electric drives and motors.

* Mechanical Engineering

Flow of Fluids: Laminar & turbulent flow, equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem, measurement of discharge, flow through pipes, friction losses, Forces of jet impinging on vanes, blades, work done and efficiency, classification of turbines & pumps.

Thermal Engineering:

Laws of thermodynamics, change in entropy in various processes; uses of steam, Properties of steam table & charts; Construction & Working of Cochran, Lancashire locomotive & Babcock & Wilcox boilers, working of steam turbine, Otto & Diesel Cycles, working of IC engines, Carburetion, Solex Carburettor. Diesel fuel, pump & injector: Cooling & lubrication.

Production Engineering: Foundry- Different casting processes, concept of Patterns; types of mould making, purring defect in castings, causes & remedies, Welding-classification and types of welding, Testing and defects in welds. Lathes- working of lathe, various tools, operation on lathes, types of lathes. Drilling operations performed on drilling machines. Description, principles of working and various operations on machine tools, milling machine, shaper, grinder, boring and slotting machines.

Strength of Materials: Stresses in composite bars, relation between elastic constants, Resilience under different types of loads, SF and BM diagrams; stresses in beams-combined direct and bending stresses, Struts and columns – Euler’s and Rankin’s theories, Torsion of circular shafts.

Theory of Machines: Simple Machines – Four bar chain, Slider crank chain, double slider crank chain, Flywheel – Turning moment diagrams. Fluctuation of energy, Friction-in collar and pivots, plate clutch, conical clutch, journal bearing. Transmission of power through flat and V-belts, Gears, profile of gears, Governors- Watt and Hartnell governors.

GOVT SECTOR COMPANIES

2009-11-12T20:41:00.003+05:30

SCHEME AND SYLLABUS FOR RECRUITMENT TO THE POST OF ASST. ELECTRICAL INSPECTORS IN CHIEF ELECTRICAL INSPECTOR TO GOVT. SERVICE

2009-11-12T19:24:00.001+05:30

SCHEME AND SYLLABUS FOR RECRUITMENT TO THE POST OF ASST. ELECTRICAL
INSPECTORS IN CHIEF ELECTRICAL INSPECTOR TO GOVT. SERVICE

SCHEME
Degree Standard:

Part-A: Written (Objective type) Examination
Paper-1 General Studies
& Mental ability
150 Marks 150 Questions 150 Minutes
Paper-2 Subject (Electrical
Engineering)
300 Marks 150 Questions 150 Minutes
Part-B: Oral Test (Interview)
50 Marks

SYLLABUS

PAPER-1 GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY

1. General Science – Contemporary developments in Science and Technology and their
implications including matters of every day observation and experience, as may be expected of
a well-educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific discipline.

2. Current events of national and international importance.

3. History of India – emphasis will be on broad general understanding of the subject in its social,
economic, cultural and political aspects with a focus on AP Indian National Movement.

4. World Geography and Geography of India with a focus on AP.

5. Indian polity and Economy – including the country’s political system- rural development –
Planning and economic reforms in India.

6. Mental ability – reasoning and inferences

PAPER-2 (CONCERNED SUBJECT) ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

I. ELECTRICAL CIRCUITS:
Basic electrical laws, Analysis of DC networks, transient response of RLC networks excited by
impulse, step, ramp and sinusoidal excitations. Transform methods, transfer functions, poles and zeros steady state AC networks, frequency domain analysis, resonance, coupled circuits, two port networks, three phase networks, power in a.c. networks, power measurement in 3-phase networks.

II. E.M. THEORY:
Electro static and electro magnetic fields, vector methods, Fields in dielectric, conducting and
magnetic materials, Laplace and Poisson’s equation. Time varying fields, Maxwell’s equation,
Poynting Theory, properties of transmission lines.

III. ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENT AND INSTRUMENTS:
Electrical standards, Error analysis, Measurement of current, voltage, power, energy, power
factor, resistance, inductance capacitance frequency and loss angle. Indicating instruments, extension of range of instruments, DC and AC bridges. Electronic measuring instruments. Electronic multimeter, CRO, frequency counter, digital voltmeter, transducers, Thermocouples, Thermistor, LVDT, strain gauges, Piezo electric crystal, Measurement of non-electrical quantities like, pressure, velocity, temperature, flow rate, displacement acceleration and strain.

IV. CONTROL SYSTEMS
Open and closed loop control systems, Mathematical modelling, block diagram, signal flow
graphs, time response and frequency response of linerar systems, error constants and series
Rootlocus technique, Bodeplot, polar plot, M-circles, N-circles, Nichol’s charts, stability, Routh Hurwitz criteria. Nyquist stability criteria, compensators, design in frequency domain. Control system components. Servo motors, synchros, tacho generator, error detector. State variable approach, modelling, state transition matrix, transfer function, response.
V. ELECTRONICS:
Solid state devices and circuits. Small and large signal-amplifiers with and without feedback at
audio and radio frequency, multistage amplifiers. Operational amplifiers and applications. Integrated circuits oscillators, RC, LC and crystal oscillators wave form generators, multi-vibrators – Digital circuits, Logic gates, Boolean algebra combinational and sequential circuits. A to D and D to A converters Micro processors (8085) instruction set, memories, interfacing programmable peripheral devices – Number system flow charts – expressions and statements in C – language – simple programs for engineering application.

VI. D.C. ELECTRICAL MACHINES:
Fundamentals of electro mechanical energy conversion, constructional features of D.C.
Machines, emf equation types and characteristics of generators application, Torque in DC motor, types of DC motors, applications. Testing of D.C. motors, efficiency, and starting and speed control.

VII. TRANSFORMERS:
Construction – Principle of operation of 1-phase transformers – Vector diagram on No Load
and – Load – Parallel operation – Regulation – efficiency – Equivalent circuit 3 phase transformer connections – Scott connection.

VIII. INDUCTION MOTORS:
Production of rotating magnetic field, production of torque types of motors equivalent circuits,
Circle diagram, torque slip characteristics, starting and maximum torque, speed control, principle of single phase induction motors, Applications.

IX. SYNCHRONOUS MACHINES:
Generation of emf in 3 phase AC Generator, Armature reaction, regulation by Synchronous
inpedance and Ampere turn methods, parallel operation, transient and sub-transiat reactances, theory of salient pole machines.
Synchronous Motor: Torque production, performance characteristics, methods of starting, V-
Curves, synchronous condenser.
Special Machines: Stepper motor, Methods of operation, Amplidyne and metadyne-
applications.

X. ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION:
General layout – Types of power stations, economics of different types, base load and peak
load stations, load factor and its effects, pumped storage schemes.

XI. POWER TRANSMISSION:
Calculation of line parameters, concepts of short, medium and long transmission lines, ABCD
parameters, insulators, Corona, P.U. quantities, fault calculations, symmetrical components load flow analysis using Gauss Seidal, New-ton Raphson, methods, economic operation, stability, steady state and transient stability, equal area criterion, ALFC and AVR control for real time operation of interconnected systems.

XII. POWER SYSTEM PROTECTION:
Principles of arc quenching, circuit breaker classification, Recovery and restriking voltages,
relaying principles over current, directional over current relays-generator and transformer protection using differential relays-line protection using distance relays Surgeo phenomena in transmission lines – Travelling wave theory, protection against surges.

XIII. UTILISATION:
Industrial Drives – Motors for various drives – Braking methods – Speed control of motors –
Economics of rail traction – Mechanics of train movement – Estimation of power and energy
requirements – Illumination – Laws Factory lighting – Street lighting – Induction and dielectric heating.

SCHEME AND SYLLABUS FOR THE POST OF LECTURERS IN GOVERNMENT POLYTECHNICS (ENGINEERING) IN A.P. TECHNICAL EDUCATION SERVICE

2009-11-12T19:19:00.000+05:30

SCHEME AND SYLLABUS FOR THE POST OF LECTURERS IN GOVERNMENT
POLYTECHNICS (ENGINEERING) IN A.P. TECHNICAL EDUCATION SERVICE

Post Code Nos. 15 to 17

PART-A: Written (Objective Type) Examination:
Paper-1 General Studies 150 Marks. 150 Qns. 150 Minutes
Paper-2 Concerned Subject 300 Marks. 150 Qns. 150 Minutes
PART-B: ORAL TEST (Interview) 50 Marks

N.B: 1. The paper in concerned subject for Engineering streams is of Engineering Bachelor’s degree
standard.
2. The Question papers will be in English only.

SYLLABUS
GENERAL STUDIES

01. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY:

a) General Science and Technology.
b) Role and impact of science and Technology on India’s development.

(Questions will cover general appreciation and understanding of matters of everyday observation and
experience as may be expected of a well-educated person who has not made a special study of science and
technology disciplines).

02. INDIAN HISTORY AND CULTURE:

a) Modern Indian History from 19th century to the present.
b) Nationalist Movement and Constitutional development.
c) Indian Culture and Heritage including architecture, Fine Arts, Dance Forms, Music, Paintings, Folk
Arts and performing arts.
d) History of Andhradesa Society, Culture, Geography and Economic Development.

03. INDIAN POLITY:

General and broad understanding of the structural (institutions) and functional (processes) aspects of Indian
Political System.

04. IDNIAN ECONOMY AND GEOGRAPHY OF INDIA:

a) Structure of National Economy.
b) Economic Development (including planning) since independence.
c) Economic Reforms.
d) Physical, Economic and Social Geography of India.

05. CURRENT EVENTS:

Current Events of Regional, National and International importance.

06. General Mental Ability (reasoning and analytical abilities)

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

01. ELECTRIC CIRCUITS, FIELDS & MEASUREMENTS:
Network elements – Ohm’s law and Kirchoff’s laws – formation of mesh and nodal equations – topological
description of networks – response of R, L and C elements to arbitrary excitations – Laplace transform
method of analysing networks.

Network theorems – superposition, Thevenin’s Norton’s theorems – Maximum power transfer thereciprocity
theorem – applications – two port parameters – Z, Y, ABCD, H para meters – their relationships.

A.C. Circuits – single phase circuits – J-notation – calculations – resonance – Polyphase – circuits –
measurements of polyphase power.

Electromagnetic theory – general relations in static fields – potential gradient and field intensity – flux density
– Gauss’s law – Poisson and Laplace equations – relations in electromagnetic fields – ampere’s law – flux
and flux density – divergence and curl – vector magnetic potential.

Electrical measurements – Types of measuring instruments – Principles of operation – extension of ranges –
instrument transformers.

02. CONTROL SYSTEMS, COMPUTATION AND ELECTRONICS
Control systems – Types of servo mechanisms – equations and models of linear systems – block diagrams
– time response of second order systems – stability criteria – root locus technique – frequency response –
Nyquist criterion – Bode plots.

Elements of computation: Digital systems – flow charts and algorithms – FORTRAN – types of statements –
logical expressions – Assignment statements – program structure – Scientific and Engineering applications.

Electronics: Solid-state devices and circuits – small signal amplifier design – feedback amplifiers –
Oscillators – FETS – Thyristors.

03. ELECTRICAL MACHINES:
Principles of Electromechanical Energy Conversion: Basic ideas of production of torque – concepts of
generation of voltages – formulae for voltage and torque production.

Three phase induction motors: The revolving field theory – Principles of operation of induction motor –
torque equation – Computation of performance – torque speed characteristics – motor starters –
conventional and thyristor controllers for speed control of induction motors.

Single phase motors: Revolving field theory – types of single-phase motors – equivalent circuits – speed
control – applications.

Synchronous machines: Generation of 3-phase voltages – types of synchronous machines – equivalent
circuit – experimental determination of reactances – voltage regulation and efficiency – parallel operation –
transient and subtransient reactances – synchronous motors – theory of operation - -phase of diagram –
equivalent circuit – performance and power factor control – applications.

Special machines: Two phase servomotors – stepper motors – methods of operation – metadyne and
amplidyne – operating characteristics and applications.

D.C. Machines and Transformers.

04. POWER SYSTEMS:
Generation: Methods of power generation – steam, hydro, nuclear, diesel – selection of site for each –
general layout of each type – function of each component – economics of different types – base and peak
load stations – pumped stations – simple calculations in hydro station design.

Transmission: A.C. Vs. D.C. transmission – criteria for selection of voltages – transmission line parameters –
G.M.D. and G.M.R – concepts for short, medium and long lines – line calculations – A.B.C and D constance
– load flow analysis – surge impedance loading.

Corona and insulators: production of corona – disruptive and visual corona – corona loss – methods to avoid
corona – types of insulators – string efficiency.

Fault analysis: Per unit representation: fault analysis – Symmetrical and unsymmetrical faults – application
of symmetrical components – reactors.

Protection: Switch gear – methods of arc extinction – classification of circuit breakers – definitions –
calculations in switch gear – testing of circuit breakers – Relaying principles – primary and back up relaying
– definitions – operation of different types of relays – applications to line, transformer and generator
protection – protection of lines and equipment against voltage surges – travelling wave theory.

Utilisation: Industrial drives – motors for various applications – braking – methods of heating and welding –
welding transformer – Economics and other aspects of track electrification.

ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING

01. Network analysis, Topology, Tree Tieset out set, first and Second order Circuits.
Steady State and Transient response, Sinusoidal steady State Analysis.
Series and parallel Resonance, Network Theorems, Laplace Transforms, Fourier series, Fourier Transforms
– Applications, Two port.
Network Parameters, Interconnection of two ports, Image Impedance, Image Parameters.
Filters – constant K and M derived sections. Electronics Devices – Diodes, Transistors, FET biasing, and
characteristics, Frequency, Response, Amplifier circuits.
Electro Magnetic Theory – Maxell’s Equations. Coulomb’s law, Amper’s law , Faraday’s law, Poynting
Energy Theorem, Stoke’s theorem, uniform plane waves.
Transmission Line Theory – Standing waves & Travelling waves, Reflection, VSWR.

02. Feedback Amplifiers and oscillator Circuits Wave Shaping circuits, Logic Gates, Boolean Theorems,
Adders & Subtractors. Antennas & Propagation – Radiation Principle, Antenna parameters.
Definitions.
Directional Antennas, Linear Antenna Arrays, Broadside & End fire Arrays, Gain, Directivity, Radiation
pattern.
Ground Wave, Sky Wave, Ionosphere Propagation, Guided Waves, Rectangular Wave-Guide Analysis,
Microwave Circuits and Components.
Microwave Tubes, Klystron, Magnetron, and TWT.
Modulation Techniques – AM, FM, PM. Channel capacity, Noise, AM, FM, Transmitters, Radio Receivers.
TV and Satellite Communication – Principles Radar Equation and Applications of Radar Computer
Programming, FORTRAN, BASIC, PASCAL, Are Programming languages.